Skull #1 is from a marsupial wolf and skull #2 is from a gray wolf. Why do you think the skulls look so similar even though the animals are not closely related to each other?
Answers
Answer:
as a result of convergent evolution
Explanation:
The skulls of the marsupial wolf and gray wolf may appear similar despite the two animals not being closely related to each other because of the concept of convergent evolution. Convergent evolution refers to the process by which different species evolve similar traits or characteristics independently of each other as a result of facing similar environmental pressures and adapting to similar ecological niches.
In the case of these two animals, they may have developed similar skull structures because of their similar diets and hunting strategies. Both the marsupial wolf and the gray wolf are carnivorous predators that rely on their strong jaws and teeth to capture and consume prey. As a result, they may have evolved similar skull structures over time to effectively bite and tear flesh.
The fact that the marsupial wolf and gray wolf are not closely related to each other suggests that the similar skull structures are a result of convergent evolution, rather than being inherited from a common ancestor
Related Questions
2. Which of the following is TRUE about both flodding and droughts?
a. Plants and animals may die from lack of water
b. They are a result of changes in the amount of rainfall in an area
c. Can cause soil pollution and spread disease
d. Only occur near oceans, rivers, or lakes.
Answers
Answer:
The Answers to your questions B
Answer: Letter A
Explanation:
what is a membrane potential and how is it generated?
Answers
Answer:
Differences in the concentrations of ions on opposite sides of a cellular membrane lead to a voltage called the membrane potential. Typical values of membrane potential are in the range –40 mV to –70 mV. ... These concentration gradients provide the potential energy to drive the formation of the membrane potential.
Explanation:
Please mark me the brainliest
One of the traits Gregor Mendel studied was flower color in pea plants. Mendel found that purple color factor was dominant to white color factor. Now, we know that Mendel's factors are genes, or alleles.
Look at the F1 generation produced when two parent plants are crossed.
Then, look at the F2 generation produced when two F1 plants are crossed. What can you infer about the original parents' genotype and phenotype? Choose the a statement that apply.
A. Both the parents were homozygous for white flowers.
B. Both the parents were homozygous for purple flowers.
C. One parent was homozygous for white flowers and the other was homozygous
for purple flowers.
D. Both parents had purple flowers.
Answers
Answer:
C. One parent was homozygous for white flowers and the other was homozygous for purple flowers.
Answer:
Explanation:
. One parent was homozygous for white flowers and the other was homozygous for purple flowers.
Where can you find most of Earths’s frozen freshwater? I will mark brainiest plz give rig by answer
Answers
Answer:
C. In mountain glaciers
Explanation:
That is all frozen freshwater.
Answer:
In the Southern polar ice cap
Explanation:
What is the goal and purpose of the cup you’re designing?
Answers
Answer:
to help keep beverages cool sorry if im late
Explanation:
.
3Which of the following best describes the relationship between natural selection and
beneficial traits?
re passed on to
A
Natural selection is the process by which beneficial traits are
offspring in subsequent populations.
B
Beneficial traits and natural selection are both mechanisms by which genes are
passed from a parent to an offspring.
C
Beneficial traits allow an organisms to be better suited to its environment.
Natural selection determines which traits are beneficial and which are
mutations.
D There is no relationship between natural selection and beneficial traits.
Answers
The relationship between natural selection and beneficial traits is best described by beneficial traits that allow an organism to be better suited to its environment (Option C).
Nаturаl selection is а mechаnism of evolution. Orgаnisms thаt аre more аdаpted to their environment аre more likely to survive аnd pаss on the genes thаt аided their success. This process cаuses species to chаnge аnd diverge over time.
In nаturаl selection, genetic mutаtions thаt аre beneficiаl to аn individuаl's survivаl аre pаssed on through reproduction. This results in а new generаtion of orgаnisms thаt аre more likely to survive to reproduce.
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Your patient has a pathology affecting the depolarization of his atria; therefore you're looking for a change in what portion of his EKG? a) the EKG would not be altered. b) T wave. c) QRS complex. d) P wave.
Answers
The depolarization of the atria is represented by the P wave on an EKG. Therefore, if a patient has a pathology affecting the depolarization of the atria, we would expect to see a change in the P wave on the EKG. The correct answer is (d) P wave.
The P wave represents atrial depolarization, which is the electrical activation of the atrial muscle cells leading to atrial contraction. Therefore, a pathology affecting the depolarization of the atria would result in a change in the P wave of the EKG. Specifically, if there is a delay or abnormality in atrial depolarization, the P wave may be widened, flattened, or inverted. In some cases, the P wave may be absent altogether.
It is important to note that changes in the P wave may also indicate other underlying conditions and a clinical diagnosis should be made based on a comprehensive evaluation of the patient's symptoms and medical history, as well as other diagnostic tests if necessary.
Therefore, the correct option is D. P wave
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what 2 substances make up adenosine
Answers
Answer:oxygen, carbon, nitrogen
Explanation:
Answer:
Adenosine is a ribonucleoside composed of a molecule of adenine attached to a ribofuranose moiety via a beta-N(9)-glycosidic bond
Explanation:
how are kingdoms similar or different to domains
Answers
How is a RADIOACTIVE rock different from a rock that is not radioactive?
Answers
It has Glowing efects i guess?
Which element is found in period 3, group 2? *
Answers
Answer:
Magnesium
Explanation:
Magnesium
Answer:
sodium, magnesium, aluminium, silicon, phosphorus, sulfur, chlorine, and argon.
Explanation:
The third period contains eight elements: sodium, magnesium, aluminium, silicon, phosphorus, sulfur, chlorine, and argon. The first two, sodium and magnesium, are members of the s-block of the periodic table, while the others are members of the p-block.
Which type of reaction typically has a high reaction rate?
A. Double replacement
B. Single replacement
C. Redox
D. Decomposition
Answers
The type of reaction that typically has a high reaction rate is Decomposition. This is because it involves the breaking down of a single compound into simpler substances, which requires a lot of energy and therefore occurs quickly.
In a decomposition reaction, a single reactant compound is broken down into two or more simpler products, such as AB → A + B. This process releases a significant amount of energy, which helps to drive the reaction forward and makes it occur quickly. Additionally, decomposition reactions often involve highly reactive substances, such as peroxides or acids, which can also contribute to a high reaction rate.
In contrast, double replacement and single replacement reactions typically occur more slowly, as they involve the exchange of ions between two reactants. Redox reactions, while they can release a lot of energy, often involve complex oxidation and reduction processes that can slow down the overall reaction rate.
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Which of the following statements is false? Checkpoints of cell-cycle control system ensure that: A. the environment is favorable for the cell to initiate DNA replication.
B. M phase is completed before cytokinesis begins.
C. all chromosomes are attached to the mitotic spindle before the chromosomes are segregated to the two daughter cells.
D. all DNA is replicated before M phase begins.
Answers
The cell-cycle control system ensures that all DNA is replicated before M phase begins. The correct option is D.
Thus, the cell copies its genetic material during the S (synthesis) phase of the cell cycle, which is when DNA replication takes place before the M phase begins. The control system keeps track of and manages the cell cycle's advancement, making sure that each phase is successfully completed before progressing to the next.
Before enabling the cell to enter M phase of cell cycle in the instance of DNA replication, the control system examines the replication's fidelity and completeness. With the help of this technique, cells may divide without making mistakes or anomalies to their genetic makeup.
Thus, the ideal selection is option D.
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In plant cells, what
structures contain
DNA?
A. nucleus,
and central vacuole
mitochondria,
B. nucleus, mitochondria,
and chloroplasts
C. nucleus, mitochondria,
and rough ER
D. nucleus, mitochondria,
and smooth ER
Answers
Answer:
The answer towards your question would be B.
B. nucleus, mitochondria and chloroplasts.
Explanation:
To explain it, the reason is because Nucleus is the one which contains DNA and only mitochondria and chloroplasts are the other ones which also contain DNA as their genetic material. Although, all living organisms do use deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) including plants. The DNA in plant cells is found only in the nucleus, the mitochondria and the chloroplasts.Which of the following BEST explains how matter and energy cycle through ecosystems
A. Animals manufacture energy from sunlight by eating plants.
B. Animals grow larger by soaking in energy from sunlight.
C. Animals use sunlight to boost up their energy levels.
D. Animals eat plants that have used energy from sunlight.
Answers
Answer:.
Explanation:.
A 52-year-old man with a history of AIDS, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and alcohol abuse was found unconscious in his home by his roommate. In the emergency department, he was hypotensive (103/60 mm Hg), febrile (temperature 101°F), and unresponsive. Computed tomography scan of the abdomen showed cholecystitis and gallstones. Laboratory data are listed. The patient was diagnosed with acute renal failure. He was administered intravenous fluids; BUN fell to 68 mg/dL and creatinine fell to 2.2 mg/dL. The patient’s blood culture report was positive for E. coli. He was treated with tobramycin and cefepime.The patient continued to deteriorate and died 5 days
after admission. Cause of death was multiorgan failure
secondary to AIDS, sepsis, and alcoholic cirrhosis.
Questions
1. What is the significance of the patient’s elevated CK? Explain why the physician ordered a CK-MB and troponin level. What can you conclude about the patient’s cardiac status?
2. What is the cause of his acute renal failure?
3. What is the significance of the patient’s large urine hemoglobin?
4. How would you interpret this patient’s liver function tests considering his clinical history
Drugs of Abuse Negative Urinalysis
Serum ethanol 84 mg/dL Hemoglobin Positive
WBC 4 HPF (0–4)
RBC 2 HPF (0–4)
CK 3,308 U/L (24–204) BUN 71 mg/dL (8–21)
CK-MB 15 ng/mL (0–7.5) Creatinine 4.1 mg/dL (0.9–1.5)
Troponin T <0.01 ng/mL (0–0.4) Alkaline phosphatase 443 U/L (45–122)
pH 7.50 Aspartate aminotransferase 305 U/L (9–45)
pCO2 27 mm Hg Alanine aminotransferase 78 U/L (8–63)
Total CO2 15 mmol/L Gamma glutamyl transpeptidase 724 U/L (11–50)
Total bilirubin 2.7 mg/dL (0.2–1.0)
Direct bilirubin 2.4 mg/dL (0–0.2)
Answers
Elevated CK (Creatine kinase) levels suggest muscle damage.
The physician ordered CK-MB and troponin levels to determine if the elevated CK was due to muscle damage or a heart attack.
A high level of CK-MB, a specific isoform of CK found in heart tissue, would indicate a heart attack.
A positive troponin level would also suggest a heart attack. In this case, the patient's CK-MB level was 15 ng/mL and troponin T level was <0.01 ng/mL. Both values are within normal limits, indicating that the elevated CK was not due to a heart attack.
The cause of the patient's acute renal failure is most likely related to sepsis, as the patient tested positive for E. coli in their blood culture.
Sepsis is a systemic inflammatory response to infection that can cause multiple organ failure, including kidney failure. Additionally, the patient's history of AIDS, hypertension, and diabetes mellitus may have contributed to the development of acute renal failure.
The presence of large urine hemoglobin is indicative of hematuria, or blood in the urine. This can be caused by a number of factors, including kidney disease, urinary tract infections, bladder or kidney cancer, or injury to the urinary tract. In this case, the patient's history of AIDS and sepsis, along with the positive result for E. coli in their blood culture, suggests that the hematuria is likely related to the sepsis and renal failure.
The patient's elevated alkaline phosphatase and gamma glutamyl transpeptidase levels suggest liver damage, which can be seen in liver diseases such as alcoholic cirrhosis.
Additionally, the elevated aspartate aminotransferase and alanine aminotransferase levels suggest liver inflammation, which is also commonly seen in liver disease. The patient's history of alcohol abuse, along with the elevated liver function tests, suggest that the patient's liver function was likely impaired due to alcoholic cirrhosis.
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Asingle-celled organism is shown performing an activity esential to survival
the process shown uses active transport what would be required in order for the acte to be released
Answers
paleoanthropologists believe that the predominant diet of our earliest omnivorous ancestors consisted mostly of * 2 points a. meat, tubers, and nuts b. roots, tubers, and fruits c. meat and seafood d. scavenged remains of dead animals and plant forms
Answers
Paleoanthropologists believe that the predominant diet of our earliest omnivorous ancestors consisted mostly of option B: roots, tubers, and fruits.
The belief is based on several lines of evidence, including studies of modern hunter-gatherer societies, analysis of early hominin fossils, and examination of the dental and digestive traits of our early ancestors.
Studies of modern hunter-gatherer societies, who live a lifestyle similar to that of our early ancestors, indicate that their diets are primarily composed of plant foods, including roots, tubers, and fruits. These foods are readily available and provide a significant source of calories, nutrients, and energy.
Analysis of early hominin fossils, such as Australopithecus and early Homo species, reveals dental and craniofacial adaptations suited for processing plant foods. These adaptations include smaller and less specialized teeth, suggesting a shift towards a diet that includes softer and less abrasive plant materials.
Additionally, the isotopic analysis of fossilized remains indicates that early hominins had a diet rich in C3 plants, which include many fruits, leaves, and root vegetables.
While some meat and animal products may have been included in their diet, the evidence suggests that plant foods, particularly roots, tubers, and fruits, formed the primary and most consistent component of the diet of our earliest omnivorous ancestors.
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Which of the following consists of nerves that branch primarily from the brain area (cranial) and the sacral area only? a) Somatic b) Sympathetic c) Parasympathetic d) None of the above e) Sensory
Answers
The correct answer is c) Parasympathetic. The parasympathetic nervous system is a part of the autonomic nervous system, which controls involuntary bodily functions. It consists of nerves that primarily branch from the cranial area (brain) and the sacral area.
The main function of the parasympathetic nervous system is to conserve energy and maintain the body's rest and digest state. It helps regulate vital functions such as heart rate, digestion, and respiration. In contrast, the sympathetic nervous system prepares the body for action during stressful situations (fight or flight response).
The somatic and sensory nervous systems, on the other hand, are involved in voluntary actions and the transmission of sensory information, respectively.
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the outermost layer of the epidermis is called the: a. subcutaneous layer. b. stratum germinativum. c. stratum corneum. d. dermal papillae.
Answers
Stratum corneum is the outermost layer of the epidermis. So option c is correct.
The epidermis outermost layer, the stratum corneum, is composed of 10 to 30 incredibly thin layers of dead keratinocytes that are constantly shedding.
As the outermost cells age and wear down, they are replaced by new layers of strong, long-wearing cells.
As new cells replace the old ones, the stratum corneum is constantly shed, although this process slows down as we age.
Complete cell turnover occurs every 28 to 30 days in young adults, while the same process takes 45 to 50 days in elderly adults.
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Imagine that you are a seed. You have been planted on the side of a hill. At the bottom of the hill is a stream. There are many forms of plant life around you which are
competing for sunlight. Write a story about how you are going to grow so that you can get all the sunlight, water, nutrients, and Carbon Dioxide that you will need. In
your story, be sure to include the following terms: geotropism, hydrotropism, and phototropism
The story should be interesting. Eight decent sentences should do
Answers
When a seed is planted in the soil upside down, the stem grows upward and away from the Earth, while the roots develop downward towards the earth. Therefore, if a root is inserted inverted in the soil.
What it will happen if indeed the seeds are placed in the ground?First, seeds develop roots when they are planted. When these roots gain traction, a little plant may begin to form and start breaking through the dirt. This procedure is known as germination in scientific terms.
What is an illustration of a plant moving towards the light?Phototropism. Plants tend to slant towards the light, as you may have seen. This is an illustration of a phototropism, a tropism in which light serves as the stimulus (Figure below). Stems and leaves incline towards the light as a means of obtaining more light for photosynthesis.
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Which two structures are found ONLY in plant cells?
Answers
Question↓
Which two structures are found ONLY in plant cells?
Answer:
Hi, There! Mika-Chan! I'm here to help :)
Plants have chloroplasts , cell wall and large central vacuole
Hope this Helps!!
Have a great day!
Heparin is a complex polysaccharide, a component of proteoglycans. Isolated heparin used as an anticoagulant, binds to the protein antithrombin and inhibits clot formation. As lipoprotein lipase is bound to the capillary endothelium
through proteoglycan, heparin also can bind to LP lipase and dislodge it from the
capillary wall. Why such treatment results in increased levels of triacylglycerols
in blood? For the answer:
a) draw the scheme representing the function of LP — lipase;
b) indicate the activator of this enzyme;
c) explain the mechanism of hypertriacylglycerolemia development in the
patient.
Give detailed answer
Answers
Treatment with heparin can lead to increased levels of triacylglycerols in the blood due to the effect it has on lipoprotein lipase (LP lipase).
a) The function of LP lipase is to break down triacylglycerols into free fatty acids and glycerol, which can then be taken up by cells and used for energy or storage. LP lipase is attached to the capillary endothelium through proteoglycans.
b) The activator of LP lipase is apolipoprotein C-II (apoC-II), which is found on the surface of chylomicrons and very low-density lipoproteins (VLDL).
c) The mechanism of hypertriacylglycerolemia development in patients treated with heparin involves the binding of heparin to LP lipase. Heparin can dislodge LP lipase from the capillary wall, preventing it from effectively breaking down triacylglycerols. This results in an accumulation of triacylglycerols in the blood, leading to increased levels of triacylglycerols.
In summary, heparin treatment can disrupt the function of LP lipase, which is responsible for breaking down triacylglycerols. This disruption leads to increased levels of triacylglycerols in the blood.
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A mutation may affect the amino acid sequence of a polypeptide only if it occurs within the.
Answers
Only if it appears within the Result of repeated of a structural gene, the amino acid structure of a polypeptide.
Amino acids can I take every day?When used sparingly and in moderation, amino acids in particular are usually safe to eat daily. It is difficult to determine with certainty what the top limit for amino acid residues in general might be due to the large variations in dietary requirements across various persons.
When ought I to consume amino acids?Between meals and right after an exercise are often the two ideal periods for most individuals to take supplements of vital amino acids. Supplementing somewhere between meal may be particularly helpful for older persons to offset the greater rates of breakdown of proteins that come with age.
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Catabolism of food molecules involves ________. group of answer choices glycogenesis dehydration reactions synthesis reactions hydrolysis reactions
Answers
Catabolism of food molecules involves Hydrolysis reaction. It is the chemical bonds,its water breaks one or more chemical bonds.The cleavage of bio-molecules where a water molecule is consumed into component parts.
Hydrolysis reaction break the covalent bonds by consuming a water molecules and dividing its atoms between separate molecules these reactions are catabolic . It gives out energy and its exergonic. In this reaction large molecules are broken down into smaller ones.
There are some examples such as reverse of the condensation reactions described above. The process that dissolve a piece of bread into simple nutrients your body can use like glucose.
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What molecule is produced during cellular respiration that provides energy.
Answers
Answer:
ATP
Explanation:
Food is converted into ATP during cellular respiration.
NOTE: *THIS IS FOR ANIMAL CELLS* you should specify plant or animal.
Replacement of dead tissue cells with connective tissue cells is a process called?
Answers
Regeneration is a sort of healing when new growth entirely transforms injured tissue sections back to their pre-damage state.
What is regeneration of connective tissue cells?After being destroyed, cells and tissues can be repaired via connective tissue or by parenchymal regeneration and replaced with healthy cells. Granulation tissue development is the first step in connective tissue repair.
Regeneration is a natural process that occurs in both plants and animals to replace or bring back to full function cells, tissues, organs, and even complete body parts.
The most sensible and efficient treatment for both the primary degenerative effects (secondary ligament damage) and their underlying cause (ligament damage).
Therefore, regeneration is a process in which replacement of dead tissue cells with connective tissue cells.
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What cellular process is directly affected by carbon monoxide poisoning?
Answers
GLUT4 transporters are
A) stored in cytoplasmic vesicles.
B) inserted in response to glucagon.
C) inserted into the plasma membrane by endocytosis.
D) stored in cytoplasmic vesicles and found in adipose and skeletal muscles.
E) found in adipose and skeletal muscles
Answers
GLUT4 transporters are stored in cytoplasmic vesicles and found in adipose and skeletal muscles. They are inserted into the plasma membrane in response to insulin, not glucagon, and this process is called exocytosis, not endocytosis.
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When during meiosis does crossing over and recombination occur?
Answers
Answer:
Crossing over occurs during prophase I of meiosis before tetrads are aligned along the equator in metaphase I. By meiosis II, only sister chromatids remain and homologous chromosomes have been moved to separate cells. Recall that the point of crossing over is to increase genetic diversity.