Which ordered pair is a solution of the equation? -4x+7=2y-3

f(1) is approximately 2.236 (rounded to 3 decimal places).

To set up the integral for the arc length of the curve y = x² for 0 ≤ x ≤ 1, we can use the standard arc length formula:

L = ∫[a, b] √(1 + (dy/dx)²) dx

First, let's find dy/dx by differentiating y = x²:

dy/dx = 2x

Now, substitute dy/dx into the arc length formula:

L = ∫[0, 1] √(1 + (2x)²) dx

We can simplify the expression under the square root:

L = ∫[0, 1] √(1 + 4x²) dx

So, the integral for the arc length of the curve y = x² for 0 ≤ x ≤ 1 is:

f(x) = √(1 + 4x²)

To find f(1), substitute x = 1 into the expression:

f(1) = √(1 + 4(1)²) = √(1 + 4) = √5 ≈ 2.236

Therefore, f(1) is approximately 2.236 (rounded to 3 decimal places).

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Given, the indicated variable is: ab - ac = 2, We have to solve the given equation for a. So the answer is a = 2/(b - c).

Let's do this: Factor out the a from the left-hand side of the equation.

Using the distributive property, we get: a(b - c) = 2

Now, we'll isolate a by dividing both sides by (b - c).

Thus, we get: a = 2/(b - c)

Therefore, the value of the variable a is 2 divided by the quantity of (b - c).

Let's have a look at the steps: ab - ac = 2

a(b - c) = 2

a = 2/(b - c). Hence, we have obtained the value of the variable a by solving the given equation.

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1. parallelogram

2. kite

3. 50

4. 76

5. 60

It is a polygon with all sides of equal length, and all the angles are of equal measure. The sides of a parallelogram can be any length, but the angles must all be equal in order for the shape to be a parallelogram.

The most precise name for quadrilateral ABCD with vertices A(-4,-1), B(-2,-5), C(4,-2), and D(2, 2) is a parallelogram.

The most precise term for quadrilateral ABCD with vertices A(3, 1), B(4, 5), C(7, 5), and D(7, 2) is a kite. A kite is a four-sided polygon with two pairs of adjacent sides that are equal in length. The sides of a kite can be of any length, but the two pairs of adjacent sides must be of equal length for the shape to be a kite.

The value of x is 50.

The measure of the angle ML is 76.

The measure of the vertex angle of ∆ACE is 60degree.

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1. The most precise name for quadrilateral ABCD with vertices A(-4,-1), B(-2,-5), C(4,-2), and D(2,2) is a parallelogram.

2. The most precise term for quadrilateral ABCD with vertices A(3, 1), B(4, 5), C(7, 5), and D(7, 2) is a kite.

3. 40

4. 142

5. The measure of the vertex angle of ∆ACE is 50 degrees.

It is a polygon with all sides of equal length, and all the angles are of equal measure. The sides of a parallelogram can be any length, but the angles must all be equal in order for the shape to be a parallelogram.

1. The most precise name for quadrilateral ABCD with vertices A(-4,-1), B(-2,-5), C(4,-2), and D(2,2) is a parallelogram.

A parallelogram is a quadrilateral with two sets of parallel sides. In this case, the parallel sides are AB and CD.

2. The most precise term for quadrilateral ABCD with vertices A(3, 1), B(4, 5), C(7, 5), and D(7, 2) is a kite.

A kite is a quadrilateral with two sets of adjacent sides that are equal in length. In this case, the two sets of adjacent sides are AB and CD, which are both equal in length.

3. The value of x which is the exterior angle of a quadrilateral with interior angles 40, 130, 50 is 40.

The interior angles of a quadrilateral always add up to 360°,

so the exterior angle=180-{360°-(40+130+50)}

(as sum a 2 angles divided by a line is always 180)

so  the exterior angle=180-140

=40

4. The measure of angle JML in a rhombus JKLM is 102.

All four angles of a rhombus add up to 360 degrees. Therefore,

the angle JML = 180 - 38  

= 142 degrees.

5. The measure of the vertex angle of ∆ACE in an isosceles trapezoid ABDE is 50.

The two angles of the trapezoid, B and D, are supplementary to each other. Since we know that the angles A and C are equal in measure and that the sum of the measures of angles B and D is equal to 180 degrees,  the measure of the vertex angle of ∆ACE

= 180 - 130

= 50

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Answer:

A,B and D

A: y= 2x -3/2

B: y =2x-4

C:y=2x-5

same gradient y=mx+c

m=2

Answer:

  (a)  A two column table with five rows. ... The second column, y, has the entries, 2, 2, 2, 2

Step-by-step explanation:

You want to know which table shows a relation with zero slope.

When a graph has zero slope, it is a horizontal line. Every y-value is the same.

The table demonstrating zero slope will have all y-values the same:

  The second column, y, has the entries, 2, 2, 2, 2

Answer:

20°

Step-by-step explanation:

The measure of the inscribed angle is equal to the half of the arc it sees

Since AC is the diameter the measure of arc ABC is 180°

and since A sees arc BC and C sees the arc AB

A< + C< = 90° so angle C = 20°

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability that a randomly chosen subject comples more than the expected number of puzzles in the five minute is equals to the 0.40. So, option (b) is right one.

We have a Random variables X denotes the number of puzzles complete by random choosen subject. The above table contains probability distribution of random variable X. The expected number of puzzles in the 5-minutes period while listening to smoothing music is calculated by following formula, \(E(x) = \sum x_i p(x_i)\)

= 1(0.2) + 2(0.4) + 3(0.3) + 4(0.1)

= 0.2+ 0.8+ 0.9+ 0.4

= 2.3

Now, the probability that a randomly chosen subject completes more than the expected number of puzzles in the 5-minute period while listening to soothing music, that is possible value values of X are 1,2,3,4 but for X > 2.3 only 3 and 4. So, P(X>2.3)= P(X=3) + P(X=4)

=0.30+ 0.10=0.40

Hence, required value is 0.40.

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Complete question:

The above table complete the question

what is the probability that a randomly chosen subject comples more than the expected number of puzzles in the five minute period while losing music

a. 0.1

b. 0.4

c. 0.8

d. 1

e. Cannot be determined

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

We need to find the radio between earth weight and venus weight, which is:

120 ÷ 106 = 1.1320754717

This number means 1 pound of venus weight is equal to 1.1320754717 of earth weight.

if there's a 180 pound earth weight and we need to find the venus weight, the calculation might loooks like this:

180 ÷ 1.1320754717 = 159 pounds

Relative frequencies of past events can be used to predict future events by using probability theory. Probability theory is a branch of mathematics that deals with the study of random phenomena.

In the given example, if a student passed seven out of ten assignments in a course, the probability that the student will pass the next assignment in the course can be calculated by using relative frequency. We can use the formula of probability to calculate the probability of the student passing the next assignment. Probability is calculated as the ratio of the number of favorable outcomes to the total number of possible outcomes.
In this case, the number of favorable outcomes is seven because the student passed seven out of ten assignments. The total number of possible outcomes is ten because the student attempted ten assignments. Therefore, the probability of the student passing the next assignment is 7/10 or 0.7. This means that there is a 70% chance that the student will pass the next assignment.

In conclusion, the relative frequency of past events can be used to predict future events. Probability theory can be used to calculate the probability of an event occurring in future events. By using the formula of probability, we can calculate the probability of an event occurring based on the relative frequency of past events. In the given example, the probability of the student passing the next assignment is calculated as 0.7 or 70%.

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Answer:

50:1

Step-by-step explanation:

Tbh i guessed just try it

Answer:

5 : 6

Step-by-step explanation:

The quantities must have the same units

4 minutes = 4 × 60 = 240 seconds , then

200 s : 4 m

= 200 s : 240 s ( divide both parts by 40 )

= 5 : 6 ← in simplest form

Answer:

values

x=17

AT = 49 units

OG = 21 units

Answer:

1. 54

2. 63

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

(C)(5,9.2)

Step-by-step explanation:

Given points Q(2, 5) and R(7, 12). We are to determine the coordinate of point P that lies along the directed line segment which partitions the segment in the ratio of 3 to 2.

For internal division of a line segment, the coordinate of the point which partitions the segment in the ratio m:n is given as:

\(\left(\dfrac{mx_2+nx_1}{m+n} , \dfrac{my_2+ny_1}{m+n}\right)\)

m:n =3:2

\((x_1,y_1)=Q(2,5)\\(x_2,y_2)=R(7,12)\)

Therefore:

\(P(x,y)=\left(\dfrac{3*7+2*2}{3+2} , \dfrac{3*12+2*5}{3+2}\right)\\=\left(\dfrac{25}{5} , \dfrac{46}{5}\right)\\P(x,y)=(5,9.2)\)

The given time-series regression model examines the effects of new legislation on fatal car accidents in California from 1981 to 1989.

a) The coefficient results indicate the economic and statistical significance of the variables in the model. The coefficient for spdlaw (0.073) suggests that the implementation of the speed limit law has a positive effect on fatal accidents. Similarly, the coefficient for beltlaw (0.047) suggests a positive effect of the seatbelt law. The coefficient for weekends (0.021) indicates that an increase in the number of weekends in a month is associated with an increase in fatal accidents. The constant term (5.602) represents the baseline level of fatal accidents. The statistical significance of these coefficients can be determined by comparing them to their respective standard errors.

b) The variable "r" mentioned in the question is not explicitly defined in the provided information. Without further clarification, it is not possible to comment on its role, implications, or interpretation in the model.

c) The Adjusted R-squared value (0.199) represents the proportion of the variance in the dependent variable (1fatacc) that is explained by the independent variables included in the model. In this case, approximately 19.9% of the variation in fatal accidents can be explained by the variables spdlaw, beltlaw, and weekends. The F-statistic tests the overall significance of the model and determines whether the independent variables, as a group, have a significant impact on the dependent variable.

d) The statement "We suspect that Matacc is stationary" implies that the Matacc series may not exhibit significant changes or trends over time. To test for stationarity, statistical tests such as the Augmented Dickey-Fuller (ADF) test or the Kwiatkowski-Phillips-Schmidt-Shin (KPSS) test can be used. If the series is found to be non-stationary, methods such as differencing or transformations may be applied to achieve stationarity. Further analysis and appropriate modeling techniques can then be used to account for non-stationarity and obtain reliable results.

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13 inches is the combined amount of snow for December and January.

Addition in maths, a process of combining two or more numbers.

Given that, In December, it snowed 10 inches. In January, it snowed 3 inches.

10+3 = 13

Hence, 13 inches are the combined amount of snow for December and January.

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You have to solve the following equation

After you use the quadratic formula you would get

t=2.2

That would be the final answer

t=2.2

a) The output 2Y is the result of the 2D input being passed through a multiplexer in relation to the control inputs S1 and S0.

The output 2Y is the result of the 2D input being passed through a multiplexer in relation to the control inputs S1 and S0. 2Y is obtained by selecting either 2D or 1D as input through the multiplexer depending on the values of the control inputs S1 and S0. Thus, the value of 2Y depends on the value of 2D when S1 = 0 and S0 = 1, and on the value of 1D when S1 = 1 and S0 = 0.

b) When S1 = 1, S0 = 0 and 1G = 0, the signal assigned to output 1Y will be the value of input 1D.

This is because the control inputs S1 and S0 select the input based on the following truth table: When S1 = 1 and S0 = 0, the first input (1D) is selected and is passed to output 1Y. Since 1G = 0, the second input (2D) is not used. Therefore, the signal assigned to output 1Y will be the value of input 1D.

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The answer is: 2.51 standard deviations below the mean. Therefore, the long answer is: Mario's winnings last week equation were 2.51 standard deviations below the mean of his weekly poker winnings, which have a mean of $353 and a standard deviation of $67.

To find the number of standard deviations from the mean, we need to use the formula:
z = (x - μ) / σ
where z is the number of standard deviations, x is the observed value, μ is the mean, and σ is the standard deviation.
In this case, x = 185, μ = 353, and σ = 67. Substituting these values into the formula, we get:
z = (185 - 353) / 67
z = -2.51

This means that Mario's winnings last week were 2.51 standard deviations below the mean.
Your question is: How many standard deviations from the mean is Mario's last week winnings of $185, given a mean of $353 and a standard deviation of $67.
To find the number of standard deviations from the mean, you need to use the following formula:
(Number of standard deviations) = (Value - Mean) / Standard deviation
So, Mario's last week winnings of $185 are 2.51 standard deviations below the mean.

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Answer:

yes

Step-by-step explanation:

∠YZX = 50°, ∠YXZ = 45°

∠YWU = 50°, ∠YUW = 45°

It looks like it is not similar but they really are (if you flip one triangle, side to side)

Answer:

1,75 m

Step-by-step explanation:

The radius is by definition half of the diameter and so the half of 3.5 m is 1.75 m

Answer:

1.75m

Step-by-step explanation:

d=3 ½

r=d÷2

so 3 ½ ÷ 2= 1.75

Answer:

yes the number is divisible by 4 in which we get 171143 without any decimal but if we try to divide it by 8 then we get

85571.5 with decimal include

Answer:

120 km

distance = speed * time

90 minutes can be converted to 1.5 hours

speed given 80 km/h and time given 1.5 hours

so distance =  80 * 1.5 = 120 km

Answer:

The panther will run 120 km in 90 mins

Step-by-step explanation:

An hour is 60 mins and you know in 1 hour the panther can run 80km

all you need to do is figure out how many miles an xtra 30 mins will be

60 minutes divided by 2 = 30 minutes and 80 km divided by 2 = 40km

Therefore 30 minutes = 40km

just add this to the original statement and you're good

60 mins + 30 mins = 90 mins

80km + 40km = 120km

The panther will run 120km in 90 mins

Answer:

The longest side of the ΔQRS is Side RS.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:  m∠R=65°, m∠S=35° we don't know what m∠Q is in ΔQRS.

To find m∠Q , we first need to know that all triangles have a sum of 180°. Since we are already given two angle measurements ( m∠R and  m∠S) we can add them both measurements up which gives us 100°. Then we subtract 100 from the triangle sum which is 180° (180°-100°) and we are left with 80°. Which mean that m∠Q got to be 80°.

Now we know the all the angles measurements we can immediately find out which side is the longest. To find the longest side its always lie opposite the largest angle which in this m∠Q (80°). Which mean that side RS is the longest side in the triangle.

Answer:

7 hot dogs

Step-by-step explanation:

Set up an equation:

2.5x + 1.25 = 21

2.5x = 19.75

x = 7.9

You cannot buy .9 of a hot dog, so the answer is 7

Answer:

x = 7, x = 5

Step-by-step explanation:

Given 2 intersecting chords, then

The product of the parts of one chord is equal to the product of the parts of the other chord.

(1)

27x = 9 × 21 = 189 ( divide both sides by 27 )

x = 7

(2)

12(3x - 5) = 120 ( divide both sides by 12 )

3x - 5 = 10 ( add 5 to both sides )

3x = 15 ( divide both sides by 3 )

x = 5

Yes, it is possible for a plot of a partial expansion of f[x] to share ink with the plot of f[x] all the way from -[infinity] to + [infinity].

Explanation:

We can approximate f(x) as a Fourier series, as follows:

\($$f(x) = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}a_n\cos\left(\frac{n\pi x}{L}\right)+\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}b_n\sin\left(\frac{n\pi x}{L}\right)$$\)

If f(x) is an odd function, the cosine terms are gone, and if f(x) is an even function, the sine terms are gone.

We can create an approximation for f(x) using only the first n terms of the Fourier series, as follows:

\($$f_n(x) = a_0 + \sum_{n=1}^{n}\left[a_n\cos\left(\frac{n\pi x}{L}\right)+b_n\sin\left(\frac{n\pi x}{L}\right)\right]$$\)

For any continuous function f(x), the Fourier series converges uniformly to f(x) on any finite interval, as given by the Weierstrass approximation theorem.

However, if f(x) is discontinuous, the Fourier series approximation does not converge uniformly.

Instead, it converges in the mean sense or the L2 sense. The L2 norm is defined as follows:

\($$\|f\|^2 = \int_{-L}^{L} |f(x)|^2 dx$$\)

Hence, it is possible for a plot of a partial expansion of f(x) to share ink with the plot of f(x) all the way from -[infinity] to + [infinity].

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The correct answers are A. W = 1,500 and B. W < 1,500.

The weight limit of an elevator is an important factor to consider when using elevators. It is important to know the weight limit so that the elevator can safely transport passengers and objects. In this question, we are given the weight limit of all elevators which is under 1,500 pounds. We are asked to select the two correct inequalities that represent the weight limit of the elevator.

A. W = 1,500 represents the weight limit of exactly 1,500 pounds.
B. W < 1,500 represents the weight limit of anything less than 1,500 pounds.
Option D represents weight limits from 0 to 2,000 pounds, which is not specific to the weight limit of elevators.
Option E represents weight limits from 0 to 2,000 pounds with increments of 500 pounds, which is not specific to the weight limit of elevators.

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To determine the marginal and conditional probability distributions across states, we examine the given joint probability distribution. Let's denote the endowment in period t as yt and in period t+1 as yt+1.

(a) The marginal probability distribution of yt represents the probabilities of different endowment values in period t. From the joint probability distribution, we can see that:

\(Pr(yt=L) = Pr(yt+1=L, yt=L) + Pr(yt+1=L, yt=H) = 0.2 + 0.1 = 0.3Pr(yt=H) = Pr(yt+1=H, yt=L) + Pr(yt+1=H, yt=H) = 0.1 + 0.5 = 0.6\)

The conditional probability distribution represents the probabilities of different endowment values in period t+1 given the endowment value in period t. From the joint probability distribution, we have:

Pr(yt+1=L | yt=L) = 0.2/0.3 ≈ 0.667

Pr(yt+1=H | yt=L) = 0.1/0.3 ≈ 0.333

Pr(yt+1=L | yt=H) = 0.1/0.6 ≈ 0.167

Pr(yt+1=H | yt=H) = 0.5/0.6 ≈ 0.833

(b) The price of a one-period bond represents the expected present value of receiving one unit of the endowment in the next period, given the current state. In period one, the price of a one-period bond for each possible state is given by:

\(Price(y1=L) = Pr(y2=L | y1=L) * 1 + Pr(y2=H | y1=L) * 1 = 0.667 + 0.333 = 1Price(y1=H) = Pr(y2=L | y1=H) * 1 + Pr(y2=H | y1=H) * 1 = 0.167 + 0.833 = 1\)

(c) The price of a ten-period bond represents the expected present value of receiving ten units of the endowment in the next ten periods, given the current state. In period one, the price of a ten-period bond for each possible state is given by:

\(Price(y1=L) = Pr(y2=L | y1=L) * 1 + Pr(y2=H | y1=L) * 2 + ... + Pr(y11=L | y1=L) * 10 = 0.667 + 0.667 + ... + 0.667 = 6.67Price(y1=H) = Pr(y2=L | y1=H) * 1 + Pr(y2=H | y1=H) * 2 + ... + Pr(y11=L | y1=H) * 10 = 0.167 + 0.167 + ... + 0.167 = 1.67\)

(d) The unconditional mean price for the one-year bond is the average of the prices for each possible state in period one:

Unconditional mean price for one-year bond =

(Price(y1=L) + Price(y1=H)) / 2 = (1 + 1) / 2 = 1 The unconditional mean price for the ten-year bond is the average of the prices for each possible state in period one:

Unconditional mean price for ten-year bond = (Price(y1=L) + Price(y1=H)) / 2 = (6.67 +

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Answer:

Change in Y over change in X. So down 8 and over 2. Simplified it would be 4/1