The following is not a purpose of a rapid trauma assessment: b) to focus care on specific injuries .
What is rapid trauma assessment?Rapid Trauma Assessment is a quick method, commonly used by Emergency Medical Services, to identify hidden and obvious injuries in trauma victim. The main aim is to identify and treat immediate threats to life that may not have been obvious during initial assessment.
RTA is used on major mechanism of injury patients or unconscious patients with an unknown mechanism injury to rapidly obtain quick inventory of all the body systems that may be injured on the patient.
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Acetaminophen, in amounts greater than 4 g per day, has been associated with livertoxicity. What is the maximum number of 500-mg tablets of acetaminophen that a person may take daily and not reach the toxic level?
What medical conditions can Paxil treat?
Answer:
Explanation:
depression, panic attacks, anxiety and many more...
why is the heart located close to the lungs
Answer:
The heart is a strong and muscular, cone-shaped organ that is about the size of a fist. It pumps blood throughout the body and is located behind the breastbone between the lungs. Deoxygenated blood flows from the heart to the lungs where it gives up wastes and is freshly oxygenated.
Explanation:
Hope it can help you lovelots
Answer:
The heart is slightly tilted towards the left side because the right lung is larger than the left lung. This condition provides the heart with enough space to function properly and pump blood efficiently to different parts of the body.
Explanation:
This is because the heart's bottom-left chamber (the 'left ventricle') is responsible for pumping oxygenated blood around the whole body, so it needs to be stronger and larger than the right ventricle, which only pumps blood to the lungs.
A physician assistant orders 0.7 mg of digoxin to be injected in office. If you have 350mcg/mL on hand, how many mL would you inject?
A patient with the measles requires what type of transmission-based precautions?
A. Contact Precautions
B. Droplet Precautions
C. Airborne Precautions
D. Standard Precautions
A patient with the measles requires what type of transmission-based precautions. The correct answer is C. Airborne Precautions.
A patient with measles requires Airborne Precautions. Measles is a highly contagious viral infection that spreads through respiratory droplets when an infected person coughs or sneezes. Airborne Precautions are necessary because the measles virus can remain suspended in the air for an extended period and can infect individuals who are in close proximity to the infected person or who enter a room where the infected person has been. Airborne Precautions involve specific measures to prevent the transmission of airborne pathogens. These precautions include placing the patient in a negative pressure isolation room, wearing a fitted respiratory mask (e.g., N95 respirator) when entering the patient’s room, and ensuring appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) is worn by healthcare providers and visitors. Proper hand hygiene and respiratory hygiene (covering the mouth and nose with tissues or the elbow during coughing or sneezing) are also essential to prevent the spread of measles.
Contact Precautions (option A) are used for diseases that can be spread by direct or indirect contact with the patient or their environment. Droplet Precautions (option B) are used for diseases transmitted through larger respiratory droplets generated when a person talks, coughs, or sneezes, but these droplets do not remain suspended in the air for long periods. Standard Precautions (option D) are the basic infection prevention practices applied to all patients and are always used in healthcare settings, regardless of the specific diagnosis or condition.
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write any two safety measures of eyes
Answer:
1.We should always wash our eyes with clean water.
2.We should wear spects when we go to place like dumping site,construction site,e.t.c.
Damage to the occipital lobe would most likely affect a person’s.
Injury to the occipital lobes may lead to vision impairments such as blindness or blind spots; visual distortions and visual inattention. The occipital lobes are also associated with various behaviors and functions that include: visual recognition; visual attention; and spatial analysis.
A patient is brought to the emergency department of a rural hospital following a high speed motor vehicle collision. When significant abdominal and pelvic injuries are noted in the primary survey, which of the following is the priority intervention?
The priority intervention in this scenario would be to stabilize the patient's condition and ensure their ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) are maintained.
In the scenario described, when significant abdominal and pelvic injuries are noted in the primary survey of a patient brought to the emergency department after a high-speed motor vehicle collision, the priority intervention would be to initiate immediate resuscitation and stabilize the patient's condition.
The first and foremost priority is to ensure the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation (ABC) are maintained. The medical team should assess and secure the patient's airway, provide oxygen if necessary, and ensure adequate ventilation.
Breathing should be assessed, and if needed, interventions like chest tube placement or needle decompression may be performed. Circulation should be addressed by starting intravenous access and administering fluids or blood products as indicated.
Following the ABC assessment and stabilization, the medical team should perform a secondary survey to further evaluate the specific injuries. In the case of significant abdominal and pelvic injuries, additional interventions may be required, such as pelvic stabilization, controlling external bleeding, or arranging for surgical consultation if there is evidence of internal bleeding or organ damage.
However, the initial priority in this scenario is to stabilize the patient's overall condition and address life-threatening injuries through proper resuscitation and management of the ABCs.
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Discuss three effects of
stimul ant drugs on the
brain
Answer:
Some possible effects include increased alertness, excitation, euphoria (extreme happiness), increased pulse rate and blood pressure, insomnia (can't sleep), and loss of appetite.
Also, a common cause of death for stimulant users is a heart attack. Their heart gets beating so fast that it can't keep up with itself.
clients admitted to the emergency department for injuries from a gas explosion with which conditions would be provided treatment immediately To which group of clients should treatment be provided immediately? The nurse is conducting triage under mass casualty conditions.
When conducing triage under mass casualty conditions caused due to a gas explosion, the immediate treatment should be provided to the patients having life-threatening injuries and excessive bleeding.
Triage is the practice of sorting the types of patients in different groups and allocating the specific treatment to each group in a mass disaster condition. It is a priority based treatment where urgent attention is provided to patients with severe conditions.
Bleeding is the unnecessary loss of blood due to some wound or injury. Bleeding can occurs outside the body or even internally. The clotting agents of the body cannot clog this level of blood loss.
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Which instruction regarding swimming should the nurse give to the client who is recovering from otitis externa
The instructions are: When taking a shower, shampooing, or taking a bath, keep your ears dry and clean and don't let water get in them. After your ear has become moist, thoroughly dry it.
What are the top 5 nursing care priorities?Identifying someone who is dying, sensitively talking with them and their family, involving them in decision-making, supporting them and their family, and developing a personalized care plan that includes enough nourishment and hydration are the five objectives.
Can ear wax damage your hearing?Earwax is a natural chemical produced by the human body. It has lubricating and antimicrobial qualities in it. Untreated buildup can cause ringing in the ears, hearing loss, discomfort, pain in the ear, and dizziness.
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The client who is recovering from otitis externa should always dry off their ears (apart from the drops). When you have otitis externa, it is recommended to avoid swimming and getting water in your ears. So, the person should avoid swimming for seven to ten days.
Keep your ears dry, clean, and free of water while taking a shower, shampooing, or a bath, according to the guidelines. Dry your ear completely after it has become wet.
Complete question: Which instruction regarding swimming should the nurse give to the client who is recovering from otitis externa?
A. Wear a scarf.
B. Stay out of the cold water.
C. Stop swimming for seven to ten days.
D. Also, place a loose cotton pledget in the external ear.
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1. Patrick is a 15-year-old male whose mother brought him to the clinic because he "just hasn't
been feeling well. " Vital signs: T-100. 2°F (tympanic) P-82 bpm R-16 BP-138/90 Analysis:
The analysis of Patrick's condition suggests that he is suffering from moderate fever and his pulse rate and blood pressure are also higher than normal.
The temperature of the body remains such that it resists any infections from microbes and the temperature increases in case the microbes enter the body. This condition of rising temperature is called as fever. In cases of fever, the person suffers from shivering, high blood pressure etc. These changes are indicative of differences happening inside the body.
To control the fever, rising pulse rate and blood pressure, essential antibiotics, paracetamol and probiotics are given to the person to heal them. These symptoms are usual in common cold, flu or some other disease as well.
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What is it about Neasles that requires a high vaccination rate to prevent deaths?
Answer:
Vaccination resulted in an 80% decrease in deaths from measles between 2000 and 2017, with about 85% of children worldwide having received their first dose as of 2017.
...
the nurse discovers a new prescription for rho(d) immune globulin for a client who is about to undergo a diagnostic procedure. the nurse will administer the rho(d) immune globulin after which procedure?
The nurse will administer the rho(d) immune globulin after Amniocentesis.
Amniocentesis- Amniotic fluid is taken from the uterus during an amniocentesis operation to be tested or treated. The fluid that surrounds and shields a developing fetus during pregnancy is called amniotic fluid. Various proteins and fetal cells are present in this fluid.
This treatment may be carried out in the later stages of pregnancy to assess the health of the fetus and identify any health issues, such as infections. Amniocentesis may be performed to examine the fetal lung development in cases when an early delivery is anticipated. The fluid is sent to a laboratory where the cells can develop and be examined.
The given question is incomplete, find below the complete question,
Q. The nurse discovers a new prescription for RhoGAM for a client who is about to undergo a diagnostic procedure. The nurse will administer the RhoGAM after which procedure?
a. Contraction stress test
b. Amniocentesis
c. Nonstress test
d. Biophysical profile
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An older client who is usually cheerful and cooperative demonstrates irritability and restlessness during morning hygiene. Which assessment would the nurse perform first.A) level of stress and ability to copeb)changes in mental status and cognitionc) deviations from baseline mood and affectd)feelings related to loss of independence
The nurse would first perform an assessment of changes in mental status and cognition in response to the older client's irritability and restlessness during morning hygiene.
This is because changes in mental status can impact a client's ability to participate in hygiene activities, and may also indicate an underlying health issue that requires further evaluation. Once changes in mental status have been ruled out or addressed, the nurse may then assess the client's level of stress and ability to cope, deviations from baseline mood and affect, and feelings related to loss of independence as needed.
In this situation, the nurse would first assess: B) changes in mental status and cognition. This is because the client's irritability and restlessness during morning hygiene could indicate a change in their mental status, which may require further evaluation and intervention.
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Prescription Terminology
Selecting an Abbreviation
Which abbreviation indicates that a drug should be taken "three times a day, before meals?"
a. 3Xd hc
b. bid pc
c. tid ac
d. tid pc
e. q4h d
Answer:
C. Tid ac
Explanation:
I calculated it logically
What is the major difference between dissociative amnesia and retrograde amnesia.
The major difference between dissociative amnesia and retrograde amnesia is the cause and type of information that is forgotten.
What is amnesia?This is a disease or condition in which it is difficult for patients to remember specific information.
What is dissociative amnesia?This type of amnesia implies patients cannot remember relevant information such as one's name, one's location, specific events or feelings.
This is often caused due to traumatic events or stress.
What is retrograde amnesia?This type of amnesia implies patients cannot remember information from their past. This means patients can remember the events that are happening today, but not the ones yesterday, last year, etc.
This is often caused by brain injury or diseases such as Alzheimer's disease or a cardiac arrest.
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meyer e, hennink m, rochat r, et al. working towards safe motherhood: delays and barriers to prenatal care for women in rural and peri-urban areas of georgia. matern child health j. 2016;20(7):1358-1365. doi:10.1007/s10995-016-1997-x
Aims Georgia ranks 40th for infant mortality and has the highest rate of maternal mortality in the country. The lack of obstetric care providers outside the Atlanta region led to the formation of the Georgia Maternal and Infant Health Research Group, which was established to study and remedy the issue.
We employed qualitative approaches to determine the access hurdles faced by women who live in rural and peri-urban parts of the state, as access to prenatal care (PNC) can improve mother and newborn health outcomes.
Results We found delays in a woman's choice to seek prenatal care (PNC) (such as awareness of pregnancy and stigma), delays in accessing a suitable healthcare institution (such as selecting a doctor and acquiring insurance coverage), and delays in receiving adequate and appropriate care (such as continuity of care and communication).
Conclusion These findings offer a justification for creating contextually relevant solutions for maternal and their caregivers in order to assist Georgian pregnant women who encounter obstacles and delays in prenatal care (PNC).
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Working towards safe motherhood includes prenatal care, and improving the mother and infant's health.
Georgia ranks 40th for infant mortality and has the highest rate of maternal mortality in the United States. To study and address the lack of obstetric care providers outside the Atlanta area, the Georgia Maternal and Infant Health Research Group were established. We employed qualitative approaches to determine the access hurdles faced by women who live in rural and peri-urban parts of the state, as access to prenatal care (PNC) can improve mother and newborn health outcomes. Method: We interviewed 24 moms who gave birth between July and August 2013 and resided in either shortage or non-shortage areas for obstetric care services.
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A patient is to take 2 2/3 tablespoons of medicine per day in 3 equally divided doses. How much medicine is to be taken in each dose
Answer:
24656hghh
Explanation:
rvchxhbjytytgyyugh
What is homeostasis? Describe the process in detail. You can use your book as references and write the page numbers you found the information to answer the questions.
Answer:
Homeostasis is any self-regulating process by which an organism tends to maintain stability while adjusting to conditions that are best for its survival. If homeostasis is successful, life continues; if it's unsuccessful, it results in a disaster or death of the organism.
Explanation:
A 12-year-old complains of itching in his right ear and pain when the pinna is pulled or the tragus is pushed. Examination reveals slight redness in the ear canal with a clear odorless fluid. This is suggestive of:
The symptoms and examination findings described are suggestive of otitis externa, which is also known as "swimmer's ear".
Otitis externa is an infection or inflammation of the external ear canal, which runs from the outer ear to the eardrum.
Symptoms of otitis externa include itching, pain (which can be severe), redness, and discharge. The discharge can be clear or pus-like and may have a foul odor. The pain can be exacerbated by pulling the ear or pressing on the tragus, which is the small, pointed piece of cartilage in front of the ear canal.
Otitis externa is often caused by bacterial or fungal infection, and can occur after exposure to water (hence the nickname "swimmer's ear") or due to skin irritation from things like Q-tips or hearing aids. Treatment typically involves ear drops that contain antibiotics and/or steroids, as well as pain management.
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food and drug administration (fda) regulations that force food producers to divulge otherwise-private information are an example of
food and drug administration (fda) regulations that force food producers to divulge otherwise-private information are an example of Adverse selection
Which foods are subject to FDA regulation?With the exception of beef, poultry, some processed egg products, and catfish, all foods and food components entered into or offered for sale in interstate commerce are governed by the agency.
A little over 20 cents of every dollar spent by Americans on goods covered by the FDA. In the United States, the FDA controls 78% of the food supply.
With the exception of meat, poultry, and some processed egg products that are governed by the U.S. Department of Agriculture, the FDA controls all foods and food additives imported into or offered for sale in interstate commerce.
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A group of researchers want to conduct a clinical trial to determine whether a new cholesterol-lowering agent is useful in preventing coronary heart disease (CHD). They identified 12,327 potential participants for the trial. Upon initial exam, 309 were found to have CHD. The remaining subjects entered the trial and were divided equally into the treatment and placebo groups. Of those in treatment group, 505 developed CHD after 5 years of follow-up, while 477 developed CHD during the same period in the placebo group. What is the incidence during the 5-year study?
Answer:
The incidence during the 5-year study is 982.
Explanation:
The incidence refers to the number of those who newly developed the CHD during the 5-year study period. This number includes the 505, who developed CHD after 5 years of follow-up and the 477, who developed CHD during the same period in the placebo group. The incidence does not include the 309, who were found to have CHD upon the initial examination. When this number (982) is compared with the total of 12,327 potential participants in the study, the incidence rate is obtained.
Artie, a 36 y/o male, comes to the clinic with chief complaint of: intermittent flank one side flank pain. The pain is an 8 on a scale of 1–10, with 10 being the worst pain he has ever felt. He states the pain lasts from 20–60 minutes and that he must either stand or walk when the pain hits. He also notes that he has blood in his urine. His most likely diagnosis is:
Artie, a 36-year-old man, arrives at the clinic with some complaints, These patient characteristics refer to a kidney disease, to know more we need to understand that.....
Kidney stonesKidney stones (also called renal calculi, nephrolithiasis or urolithiasis) are hard deposits made of minerals and salts that form inside your kidneys.
Dietexcess body weight some medical conditionsand certain supplements and medicationsIt is among the many causes of kidney stones.
Kidney stones can affect any part of your urinary tract — from your kidneys to your bladder. Often, stones form when the urine becomes concentrated, allowing minerals to crystallize and stick together.
Passing kidney stones can be quite painful, but the stones usually cause no permanent damage if they're recognized in a timely fashion. Depending on your situation, you may need nothing more than to take pain medication and drink lots of water to pass a kidney stone. In other instances — for example, if stones become lodged in the urinary tract, are associated with a urinary infection or cause complications — surgery may be needed.
SymptomsA kidney stone typically will not cause symptoms until it moves around within your kidney or passes into your ureters — the tubes connecting the kidneys and the bladder. If it becomes lodged in the ureters, it may block the flow of urine and cause the kidney to swell and the ureter to spasm, which can be very painful. At that point, you may experience these signs and symptoms:
Severe, sharp pain in the side and back, below the ribsOther signs and symptoms may include:
Pink, red or brown urineWith this set of information we can say that this patient has kidney stones, there is no reason to worry because the health professional will solve this problem easily if the recommendations made by him are followed.
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Taniya, who is 68, discusses with her doctor how some of her knuckles are hurting more and more frequently. The doctor describes how joints such as knuckles weaken with aging as cartilage softens and breaks down. The doctor then prescribes a steroidal anti-inflammatory drug called celecoxib. Why will celecoxib help Taniya?
A. The drug will increase osteoblast activity to help reduce the damage caused by osteoporosis, thereby slowing the effects of aging.
B.The drug will stop osteoclast activity in order to reverse the signs of aging caused by osteoporosis.
C.The drug will increase prostaglandin production and reduce inflammation caused by osteoarthritis, thereby reversing the signs of aging.
D. The drug will stop prostaglandin production and end inflammation caused by osteoarthritis, thereby slowing the effects of aging.
Answer:
a
Explanation:
beacuse the drug use
lii zay 2
The nurse is caring for a 2-year-old who is refusing oral antibiotics. What is the nurse's next actions?
The next thing should be to offer the child a choice of orange or apple juice with the antibiotic.
Antibiotic administration to toddlersDue to their usual tastes, toddlers may find oral antibiotics unpleasant and may throw tantrums whenever there is a need to take one.
There is a significant need for control at this stage. Thus, forcing them to take the drug may backfire. Instead, the nurse should use a convincing method to get the toddler to take the antibiotic.
A good method would be to offer the toddler a choice of orange or apple juice with the antibiotic.
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Drugs & Alcohol
4.1 Assignment
Refusal Skills Role Play
Name:
Date:
Directions: Find a partner to role play with parent, sibling, or classmate). Read each scenario below
aloud and discuss the best way to respond. Then role play the scenario with your partner. After each
scenario, describe your role play response to each situation.
1. You are having trouble sleeping at night because you have so much on
your mind. You mention it to a friend, and he suggests using some
prescription pills his mother uses. He offers them to you. (5 points)
2. Your teammates on the basketball team like to get high before games.
They encourage you to show your team unity by getting high with them.
They are convinced they play better when they are high, and they want you
to play your best game too. You don't want to disappoint your teammates.
15 points)
How many of the mother-child dyads with children 3 to 5 years old were available for contact for the follow-up study? How many mother-child dyads were included in the initial intervention group for the follow up study? What frequency and percent of the mother-child dyads were unable to be contacted in the intervention group?
Answer:
Did the study include sampling inclusion criteria? What were those criteria? Were these criteria appropriate for this study?a.Yes, the study included a sampling inclusion criteria.b.The criteria was: i.The targeted child was between the ages of 3 to 5 years old at the time of data collection between March 2010 through March 2011ii.The mother had primary custody or regular visitation with the childiii.The dyad lived in state and/or was able to meet in state for the data collection iv.The mother participated in the MTB program or the control condition beyond the initial consent period. c.Yes, the criteria was appropriate for the study.2.Sampling inclusion and exclusion are developed to determine what type of population? What is the accessible population? Document your answer.a.Sampling inclusion criteria are the requirements identified by the researcher that must be present for an element or participant to be included in a sample. b.Sampling exclusion criteria are the requirements identified by the researcher that eliminate or exclude participants from being in a sample. c.Researchers may identify from very broad sampling criteria to very specific criterion. Broad sampling criteria can promote a large, diverse, or heterogeneous population, while specific sampling criteria promote a smaller, more homogeneous population. d.The accessible population is the population in research to which the researchers can apply their conclusions. This population is a subset of the target population and is also known as the study population. It is from the accessible population thatresearchers draw their samples.3.How many of the mother–child dyads with children 3 to 5 years old were available for contact for the follow-up study? How many mother–child dyads were included in the initial intervention group for the follow-up study? What frequency and percent of the mother–child dyads were unable to be contacted in the intervention group?a.50 mother-child dyads (80.6%) were available for contact.b.62 mother-child dyads from the initial intervention group met all the eligibility criteria and were therefore included in the follow up study.c.12 mother-child dyads we unreachable.
Explanation:
Which of the following substances is used for surgical hand scrubs?
Answer:
the answer is Chlorhexidine
Which of the following is true of the newborn states of arousal?
Answer:
The states of arousal describe the cycle of sleeping and alertness.
Explanation: