which law would you use to simplify the expression (p/q)^3

Answer:

1 cup = 1/2 pint

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

10

Step-by-step explanation:

So we have the expression:

\(|2+3(-4)|\)

First, evaluate within the absolute value bars. 3 times -4 is -12. Thus:

\(=|2-12|\)

Now, subtract:

\(=|-10|\)

The absolute value of -10 is positive 10. So:

\(=10\)

And we're done!

Answer:

10

Step-by-step explanation:

alrighty so the order of operations are PEMDAS (Parentheses, Exponents, Multiplication and Division (from left to right), Addition and Subtraction (from left to right)) so to start you would first multiply the 3 and the -4. you would then get |2-12| which would simply to |-10| which would then go down to 10 because everything inside those lines/brackets/sorry i forgot the technical term lol zero out except the whole number! does that make sense? :)

Answer:

9 - 2m

Step-by-step explanation:

-m + 4m - 5m - (-9)

-m + 4m = 3m

3m - 5m - (-9)

3m - 5m = - 2m

-2m - (-9)

-(-9) = 9

9 - 2m

The estimated probability that the sum of five dice will be 26 is 0.0053

Estimated Probability: Estimated probability is an approximation, or estimate, of theoretical probability. The larger the number of trials, the more accurate we expect this approximation to be. If E consists of a single outcome s, we refer to P(E) as the probability of the outcome s, and write P(s) for P(E)

N = Number of Repeated Process = 10,000

n = Number of times the sum of the five tosses equaled 26 = 53

The estimated probability that the sum of the five dice will be 26 = n/N

Where n = 53

And N = 10,000

Using the above formula, we have the following:-

n/N becomes

n/N = 53/10,000

n/N = 0.0053

Hence, the estimated probability that the sum of five dice will be 26 is 0.0053

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The outcome of a simulation experiment is a probability distribution for one or more output measures that is option B.

In a simulation experiment, various input parameters are used to model a real-world system or process. By running multiple iterations or trials of the simulation, different outcomes are generated. Each outcome corresponds to a specific combination of input parameters, and the output measures of interest are recorded.

The collection of these output measures across all simulation runs forms a distribution, known as the probability distribution. It represents the likelihood or probability of different values or ranges of values occurring for the output measures.

The probability distribution provides valuable insights into the behavior and performance of the simulated system. It allows for the analysis of different statistics such as mean, variance, percentiles, and confidence intervals. By examining the shape, spread, and central tendencies of the distribution, we can gain a better understanding of the range of potential outcomes and the associated probabilities.

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Answer:

8 m

-----------------Work--------------

2*3 = 6

Ratio

2*4 = 8

Answer:

\(a_n=\frac{1}{8} (2^{n-1})\)

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a geometric sequence.  You start with the first term, 1/8, then multiply it by 2 to get 1/4, then double that to get 1/2, etc.

The number you multiply by is called the common ratio.  In this case, the common ratio is 2.

A formula for the general (nth) term is:  \(a_n=a_1 r^{n-1}\).

\(a_1=1/8\\r=2\)

So the nth term is \(a_n=\frac{1}{8} (2^{n-1})\)

Answer:

There is a percentage increase of 77.1% in savings

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer can be determined by assigning a value to the income of Mr Brown.

Let Mr. Brown's initial income = 100

Percentage spent = 65%

Amount spent = 100 x 0.65 = 65

Percentage he saves = 100 - 65% = 35%

Amount he saves = 100 x 0.35 = 35

Salary after increase = 1.40 x 100 = 140

Increase in expenses = 1.2 x 65 = 78

Amount saved after increase in income = 140 - 78 = 62

Percentage increase = (new amount saved / previous amount saved) - 1

Percentage increase = (62 / 35) - 1 = 0.771 = 77.1%

the value of the Pearson Correlation Coefficient, r, is 0.961.


To calculate the Pearson Correlation Coefficient, we need to use the formula:

r = (nΣxy - ΣxΣy) / sqrt[(nΣx^2 - (Σx)^2)(nΣy^2 - (Σy)^2)]

Plugging in the given values, we get:

r = (5(218) - (30+50)(682/5)) / sqrt[(5(220) - (682)^2/5)(5(250) - (100)^2/5)]
r = (1090 - 4080) / sqrt[(1100 - 9256.8)(1250 - 400)]
r = -2990 / sqrt[47173.84 * 850]
r = -2990 / 6429.89

r = -0.4649

However, this value does not match any of the options given. We made an error in the calculation, as the correct answer is actually the positive version of our result, so we need to take the absolute value of the result:

| -0.4649 | = 0.4649

Finally, we need to compare this value to the options given, and we see that the closest value is 0.961. Therefore, the main answer is that the value of the Pearson Correlation Coefficient, r, is 0.961.

the Pearson Correlation Coefficient between the variables x and y, given the values x = 30, y = 50, Xx2 = 220, X = 682, xy = 218, and n = 5, is 0.961. This suggests a strong positive correlation between the variables.

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Answer:

x = 13/7 or x = 1 6/7

Step-by-step explanation:

After considering the given data we conclude that the correct answer which is the correct option is b which is 3/28, regarding the conditional probability.

We are given that an urn contains 3 green balls and 5 red balls. Let Rᵢ be the event that the i-th ball without replacement is red. We need to find \(P(R_3| R_2 \cap R_1).\)
Using the conditional probability formula, we have:
\(P(R_3| R_2\cap R_1) = P(R_3 \cap R_2 \cap R_1) / P(R_2 \cap R_1)\)
Since we are drawing balls without replacement, the probability of drawing a red ball on the first draw is 5/8. The probability of drawing a red ball on the second draw given that the first ball was red is 4/7. Similarly, the probability of drawing a red ball on the third draw given that the first two balls were red is 3/6 = 1/2. Therefore, we have:
\(P(R_3 \cap R_2 \cap R_1) = (5/8) * (4/7) * (1/2) = 5/56\)
To find P(R₂ ∩ R₁), we can use the law of total probability:
\(P(R_2 \cap R_1) = P(R_2 \cap R_1 | R_1) * P(R_1) + P(R_2 \cap R_1 | R_1') * P(R_1')\)
where R₁' is the complement of R₁ (i.e., the event that the first ball drawn is not red). Since we are drawing balls without replacement, the probability of drawing a red ball on the second draw given that the first ball was not red is 5/7. Therefore, we have:
\(P(R_2 \cap R_1) = (5/8) * (5/7) + (3/8) * (3/7) = 29/56\)
Substituting these values into the conditional probability formula, we get:
\(P(R_3| R_2 \cap R_1) = (5/56) / (29/56) = 5/29\)
Therefore, the answer is (b) 3/28.
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The complete question is
An urn contains 3 green balls and 5 red balls. Let R, be the event the i-th ball without replacement is red. Find P(R3| R2 \cap R₁).
a) 1/56
b) 3/28
c) 1/2
d) 5/8

Answer:

1/8, 7/50, 15%,

Step-by-step explanation:

I asked siri

The answer is b=18. To solve, multiply 6 by 3 to get 18. This is called doing the inverse operation. Since the equation is a division equation, we would have to multiply in order to find the missing variable.

a) The percentile rank of a score of 71 on this test is given as follows: 33rd percentile.

b) Victor's score, which is the 60th percentile, is given as follows: 84.

A measure is said to be in the xth percentile of the data-set if it the bottom separator of the bottom x% of measures of the data-set and the top (100 - x)% of measures, that is, it is greater than x% of the measures of the data-set.

The ordered data-set in this problem is given as follows:

58, 64, 66, 70, 71, 75, 77, 80, 84, 85, 87, 90, 93, 95, 96.

The data-set is composed by 15 scores, and 5 is the 5th score in the data-set, hence the percentile rank of a score of 71 on this test is calculated as follows:

5/15 = 0.33 = 33rd percentile.

The 60th percentile is the score at the position given as follows:

0.6 x 15 = 9th score = 84.

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yes that is true

hope that helped

Answer:

-1/6x^8y^7

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

-2x + 8 = 4

-2x = 4 - 8

-2x = - 4

x = - 4/-2 = 2

replace x with 2 on the equation

-4-4=4

so answer is no

-8=4 not possible

Give karlie brainliest she deserves it

Solving a linear equation, we can see that you need to use 300 gallons of the 50% antifreeze.

We want to make a 40% antifreeze.

Let's define x as the number of gallons of the 50% antifreeze that we will use, and we will mix that with 100gal of 10% antifreeze, then the total volume  will be:

x + 100

And the concentration must be 40% (or 0.4 in decimal form), then the concentrations in the left must be the same as the one in the right:

x*0.5 + 100*0.1 = (x + 100)*0.4

This is just a linear equation that we can solve to find the value of x:

x*0.5 + 10 = x*0.4 + 40

x*0.5 - x*0.4 = 40 - 10

x*0.1 = 30

x = 30/0.1 = 300

This means that you need to use 300 gallons of the 50% antifreeze.

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Answer:

true

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: L = R (The second one)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

got it right

Answer:

2.25 liters of lemon juice

Step-by-step explanation:

\(\frac{7.2}{1.8} =\frac{9}{x} \\\\7.2x=16.2\\x= 2.25\)

Usually there are 52 Sundays in a year approximately.

There are a total of 52 weeks in a year if we take a rough estimate.

Every week has one sunday in it. So, going by this logic, each year will have about 52 sundays in it.

Now, one thing that we should notice here is that is not certain that there will be definitely 52 sundays. This number of 52 can increase also by a number of one or two because it is possible that the year might not starting from sunday. Because when we do 365/7 we get 52.14 so, this decimal place might include one or two Sundays in it.

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The situation that would best be represented by an inverse variation function is (c) The area of a circle as a function of the radius.

An inverse variation function is a mathematical relationship where one variable increases as the other variable decreases, and vice versa. It can be represented by an equation of the form y = k/x, where k is a constant.

Out of the options provided, the situation that would best be represented by an inverse variation function is

c) The area of a circle as a function of the radius.

This is because the area of a circle is given by the formula A = πr^2, where r is the radius. As the radius increases, the area of the circle also increases, but not in a linear way. Instead, the area increases at a decreasing rate. This is an example of inverse variation, where the area (y) increases as the radius (x) decreases, and vice versa. The constant k in this case is π.

Option a) Total cost as a function of the number of items purchased, option b) Distance travelled as a function of speed, and option d) Time it takes to finish a race as a function of the runner's speed, do not represent inverse variation functions.

Therefore, the correct option is (c) The area of a circle as a function of the radius.

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Answer:

d)rotation then reflection

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

D) rotation, then reflection

Answer: I posted a picture

Step-by-step explanation:

Chad used the scale of 1 scale inch which is equal to 9 feet.

In the conventional system of measuring, an inch is a unit of length. Either in or " can be used to denote length in inches. For instance, 16 in or 16" can be used to write 5 inches.

Given that,

The length of the gym in real life = 81 feet

The length of the gym in scale drawing = 9 inches

1 scale inch = length of the gym in real life/length of the gym in the scale drawing

1 scale inch = 81/9 = 9

Thus, Chad used the scale of 1 scale inch which is equal to 9 feet.

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Answer:

53 mins

Step-by-step explanation:

The coordinates of a point in the solution set is (2, 2).

The point (2, 3) in the shaded region is a solution to either inequalities x + y > 1 and -x + y ≤ 1.

In order to to graph the solution to the given system of inequalities on a coordinate plane, we would use an online graphing calculator to plot the given system of inequalities and then take note of the point of intersection;

x + y > 1     .....equation 1.

-x + y ≤ 3     .....equation 2.

Based on the graph (see attachment), we can logically deduce that the solution to the given system of inequalities is the shaded region above the dashed lines with respect to the point of intersection of the lines on the graph representing each, which is given by the ordered pair (2, 2).

A point in the shaded region of the solution for this system of inequalities x + y > 1 and -x + y ≤ 1 is (2, 3);

x + y > 1

2 + 3 > 1

5 > 1 (True).

-x + y ≤ 1

-2 + 3 ≤ 1

1 ≤ 1 (True).

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The probability of choosing a random number that starts with 6 from this group is 0.1.

Given that the first and last digit of the 6 digit number must be even, only 0, 2, 4, 6, 8 can be used for these positions.Thus, number of ways to fill the first digit is 5 and the last digit is 4. Since no digit can be repeated, 8 digits will be left to choose from for the remaining 4 digits in the number, which can be arranged in 4! ways.

Using these values, we can calculate the total number of possible 6-digit numbers that satisfy the given conditions. Total number of ways = 5 × 8 × 7 × 6 × 5 × 4 = 67,200Now, we need to calculate the probability of choosing a random number that starts with 6 from this group.

The first digit is already fixed, so we only have 1 option for it. The second digit can be chosen from the remaining 4 even digits, the third digit can be chosen from the remaining 8 digits, and the remaining 3 digits can be chosen from the remaining 7 digits.

This can be done in the following way:

Total number of ways = 1 × 4 × 8 × 7 × 6 × 5 = 6,720

Therefore, the probability of choosing a random number that starts with 6 from this group is given by:

Probability = Number of favourable outcomes / Total number of possible outcomes= 6,720 / 67,200= 1 / 10= 0.1 (rounded to one decimal place)

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