Answer:
Malaria
Explanation:
Hope this helps <3
Answer:
malaria is highly communicable disease considered a global health issue.
Which part of the cell is the organelle that functions as its control center?
the DNA
the tissue
the nucleus
the cytoplasm
Answer:
The Nucleus
Explanation:
It is the control center of the cell.
Guillermo was finding it difficult to walk up the steps to his family’s apartment. His doctor thinks that his cells might not be getting enough oxygen or glucose.
Why does having low levels of glucose or oxygen in his cells make it difficult for Guillermo to walk up steps?
Which body systems should the doctor test in order to find out whether Guillermo’s cells are getting enough oxygen and glucose and why?
Answer:
Oxygen and glucose are both essential for energy production.
Explanation:
Glycolysis is the break down of sugar with or without the presence of oxygen to provide energy to our cells. The energy for the cell is in the form of ATP. In the presence of oxygen the process is much more efficient and is the last step in oxidative phosphorylation. In this process the Oxygen will pick up the protons that have driven the proton motif force that was used to turn the ATPase that was used to make ATP. The oxygen picks up these protons and keeps the cell pH stable and this is called metabolic water. The Dr should check the blood for the presence of both glucose and oxygen.
Emotional Wellness. PLEASE HELP!!! WILL MARK BRAINLEST!! 50 Points!!!
1. A belief that people should have complete control over their mental and emotional dimensions of wellness is a commonly held notion and this contributes to the stigma associated with mental/emotional illness and is one reason for lack of appropriate treatment.
a) True
b) False
2. Recently (2008) changes in federal legislation require health insurance plans to pay equally for both mental and physical health care services. This parity legislation is an example of which of the strategies suggested in the 1999 Surgeon General's Report on Mental Health?
a) Ensure delivery of state of the art mental health care.
b) Focus on prevention strategies.
c) Allow additional financial support for research into mental health issues
d) reduce financial barriers to treatment
3. The World Health Organization's definition of health includes which of the following?
a) Absence of illness
b) Physical wellbeing
c) Mental and social well-being
d) a,b,c
4. Emotional health can best be described as being able to
a) be self-sufficient and self confident.
b) identify symptoms of psychological problems.
c) adapt to various social conditions.
d) express as well as control feelings.
5. Research by experts in the field of medicine suggest that the general public consistently overestimates the impact of poor mental/emotional health on the quality of human life.
a) True
b) False
Answer:
1 . a (true)
2. c
3. d
4. a
5. a
what does increased activity of the ANS ( sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system) do to the GI system ?
The increased activity of the autonomic nervous system (ANS), which comprises the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system, affects the gastrointestinal (GI) system by altering its normal functioning.
These changes could include an increase or decrease in motility, secretion, blood flow, and more. The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems are two distinct parts of the ANS. The sympathetic nervous system activates the fight-or-flight response in the body, while the parasympathetic nervous system initiates the rest-and-digest response. The sympathetic nervous system generally inhibits GI motility, and the parasympathetic nervous system stimulates it.
Increased activity of the ANS (sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system) on the GI system. Increased sympathetic activity, as part of the fight-or-flight response, reduces GI motility, which decreases the amount of time food remains in the intestines. This could lead to constipation, decreased secretion of digestive juices, and reduced blood flow to the digestive organs.
Conversely, increased parasympathetic activity, as part of the rest-and-digest response, increases GI motility, which increases the amount of time food remains in the intestines. This could lead to diarrhea, increased secretion of digestive juices, and increased blood flow to the digestive organs. In summary, increased activity of the ANS alters the normal functioning of the GI system by affecting motility, secretion, blood flow, and other physiological processes. These changes could lead to various GI problems, such as constipation, diarrhea, and reduced or increased secretion of digestive juices.
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choose the minerals that are needed in higher quantities during pregnancy.
Answer:
during pregnancy you need folic acid , iron calcium vitamin D choline omega 3 fatty acids , B vitamins and vitamins C2. When looking for a sugar cookie recipe, you want one that has very little:
O baking powder
O baking soda
O Salt
When looking for a sugar cookie recipe, you want one that has very little salt and is therefore denoted as option C.
What is a Recipe?This is referred to as a set of instructions that describes or gives more information about how to prepare or make something. It is commonly used in the preparation of a dish of prepared food or product.
In a scenario where an individual is looking for a sugar cookie recipe, then one has to look out for the one which has very little salt as the ones which have more salt won't give that very sweet taste due to contrasting tastes they both possess which is observed by the consumer.
Baking powder and baking soda on the other hand are common leavening agents for baking. The amount of baking powder should be tripled to equal the amount of baking soda.
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PLEASE ANSWER ASAP!!! Describe three different strength training exercises and the muscle or muscle group they
target. Do not choose exercises that target the same muscle or muscle group
Answer:
Push Up: Upper body Muscles
Keeping a prone position with the hands palms down under the shoulders, the balls of the feet on the ground, and the back straight, pushes the body up and lets it down by an alternate straightening and bending of the arms. Repeat.
Curl Ups: Abdominal muscles
Lie on your back with your arms crossed over your chest, keeping your knees slightly bent. Raise your upper body off the floor by flexing your abdominal muscles. Repeat.
Squats: Leg Muscles
Stand Up straight and bend your knees. Squat down as low as you can and push yourself back up straight. Repeat.
STAN BLACKPINK!!
Strength training exercises involve the improvement of endurance and strength. Push-ups, curl-ups, and squats are strength training exercises that target the upper body, abdomen, and leg.
What are strength training exercises?Strength training exercises increase and improve muscle endurance and strength by training the muscles of the upper and lower body along with the abdomen region.
The squats are the exercise of leg muscles that are performed in a standing position with bent knees. The person squats down and up by exerting pressure on their leg muscles.
Push-ups are the exercise of upper body muscles, where a person lies in a prone position and then pushes the body while putting their body weight on the hand muscles by alternatively straightening and bending their arms.
Curl-ups are the exercise of the abdomen where the person lies in a supine position with arms crossed over the chest and knees bent. The person then raises their body off the surface and tries to reach the knees.
Therefore, Push-ups, curl-ups, and squats are strength training exercises.
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Your organization has implemented a robust ERM program similar to the one outlined in this chapter. The audit committee has asked you to assess the design adequacy and operating effectiveness of the program. Because the audit committee members are familiar with COSO ERM, they would like you to assess the veracity of the ERM program relative to the eight components of ERM. Based on this request, develop a list of steps you would follow to test each of the ERM components. Include at least two work steps for each components.
Steps to assess an ERM program include reviewing the internal environment, evaluating objectives and risks, assessing risk response and control activities, reviewing communication channels, and monitoring ongoing risk management.
When assessing the design adequacy and operating effectiveness of an Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) program, it's important to evaluate each of the eight components outlined by COSO ERM. Here is a list of steps you can follow to test each component, including two work steps for each:
1. Internal Environment:
Review the organization's mission, vision, and values statements to ensure they align with risk management objectives.Assess the tone at the top by interviewing key executives and senior management to gauge their commitment to risk management and the overall risk culture.2. Objective Setting:
Examine the documented strategic objectives and determine if they are clearly defined, measurable, and aligned with risk appetite.Evaluate the process of cascading objectives down to individual departments to ensure alignment throughout the organization.3. Event Identification:
Review the organization's risk register and assess whether it captures a comprehensive range of potential events and risks.Conduct interviews with employees from various levels and departments to identify any additional risks that may not be adequately captured in the risk register.4. Risk Assessment:
Evaluate the methodology used for assessing risks, including the criteria for likelihood and impact.Select a sample of risks from the risk register and review the risk assessment process to determine if it is consistently applied and appropriately prioritizes risks.5. Risk Response:
Review the organization's risk response strategies to ensure they are aligned with the risk appetite and that they address the identified risks.Assess the effectiveness of risk mitigation controls by testing a sample of controls to determine if they are operating as designed and effectively reducing risk.6. Control Activities:
Evaluate the design of key control activities to ensure they are adequate for mitigating the identified risks.Test a sample of control activities to assess their operating effectiveness and determine if they are being consistently applied.7. Information and Communication:
Review the process for collecting and reporting risk-related information to key stakeholders, including the board and senior management.Assess the effectiveness of communication channels within the organization to ensure that risk information is shared in a timely and accurate manner.8. Monitoring:
Evaluate the organization's ongoing monitoring processes for risks and risk management activities.Assess the effectiveness of periodic risk assessments and the monitoring of key risk indicators to identify changes in the risk landscape.These steps provide a framework for assessing the design adequacy and operating effectiveness of each component of the ERM program. However, it's important to tailor the specific testing procedures based on the organization's unique characteristics, industry, and risk profile.
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Which of the following food items is a good source of Vitamin C?
O Skim milk
O chicken
O almonds
O Oranges
A nurse is unable to palpate the apical impulse on an older client. Which assessment data in the client's history should the nurse recognize as the reasonfor this finding?
A. heart rate is irregular
B. heart enlargement is present
C. respiratory rate is too fast
D. client has an increased chest diameter
The nurse should recognize a heart enlargement is present in the client's history. Option B is correct.
The apical impulse, also known as the point of maximal impulse (PMI), is the point where the heartbeat can be felt most prominently on the chest wall. It is typically located in the fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line. Palpating the apical impulse helps assess the size, position, and strength of the heart.
If a nurse is unable to palpate the apical impulse on an older client, it suggests that there may be a change in the size or position of the heart. Heart enlargement (cardiomegaly) can cause the apical impulse to be displaced or obscured, making it difficult to locate or feel. This can occur due to conditions such as congestive heart failure, myocardial infarction, or cardiomyopathy.
Hence, B. is the correct option.
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Which of these methods is the LEAST reliable in preventing a pregnancy?
a. latex condom
b. birth control pill
c. spermicidal agent
d. withdrawl
Answer:
Which of these methods is the LEAST reliable in preventing a pregnancy?
Explanation: c. spermicidal agent
Explain how poor physical health may affect your social health.
Save and Exit
Next
Submit
Mark this and retum
Answer:تؤدي إلى سخرية الأشخاص منك والنظر اليك من باب الشفقة والإستهزاء بمظهرك
Explanation:
What is the major work of SAHW ? Explain.
Answer:
George Bernard Shaw is famous for his role in revolutionizing comedic drama. He was also a literary critic and a prominent British socialist. Shaw's most financially successful work, Pygmalion, was adapted into the popular Broadway musical My Fair Lady. He won the Nobel Prize for Literature in 1925.
which manifestation(s) of atelectasis is/are associated with airway obstruction?decreased breath sounds on the affected side
Decreased breath sounds on the affected side are a manifestation of atelectasis associated with airway obstruction.
Atelectasis is a condition where there is a collapse or incomplete expansion of the lung or a part of the lung.
It can be caused by various factors including airway obstruction, which can lead to the manifestation of decreased breath sounds on the affected side.
Airway obstruction can occur due to several reasons such as mucus plugging, foreign body aspiration, or bronchial obstruction caused by tumors or inflammation.
When there is an obstruction, the air is unable to flow properly into the lungs, which can lead to a decrease in breath sounds on the affected side.
Decreased breath sounds on the affected side is a clinical manifestation of atelectasis associated with airway obstruction.
It is usually accompanied by other symptoms such as coughing, wheezing, and shortness of breath.
The extent of the atelectasis depends on the severity and duration of the airway obstruction.
Early diagnosis and treatment of atelectasis are crucial to prevent further complications such as pneumonia, respiratory failure, or even death.
Treatment of airway obstruction may include bronchodilators, nebulizers, or removal of the foreign body or mucus plug.
In severe cases, surgery may be necessary to remove the obstruction or repair the damaged lung tissue.
Early diagnosis and treatment of the underlying cause are essential to prevent further complications and improve the patient's outcome.
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Juan accidently used bittersweet chocolate for cookies instead of milk chocolate. How could he adjust the batter?
-Mix in some dark chocolate to balance the taste.
-Add significantly more sugar to make the cookie sweet.
-Bittersweet chocolate works well too, so it is not a problem.
-Increase the amount of liquid in the batter to compensate for dryness.
Answer:
Adding more sugar to substitute sweeter chocolate and balance out the bittersweet chocolate. The second option.
Explanation:
give any two reason for increase in dependent population of Nepal
Answer:
POVERTY AND EARLY MARRIAGE Can be the reason for increase in Nepal
Explanation:
Watch the songs with the correct definition
where can you buy narcan
Answer:
wallgreens
Explanation:
What is a key to improving skill performance?
View a video of the skill.
Watch a friend use the skill in a sport.
Practice correctly.
Research the skill.
Answer:
Practice correctly
is the answer I got
WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST!!!!!
Keep a journal of your food intake for one week. Consider writing about the following:
1. Were you hungry when you ate?
2. What was the main macronutrient in your nutritional choice?
3. How did you feel after you ate?
4. What physical activities did you do for the day?
I’ve always done that don’t know why either, lol. I don’t know if you want us to answer but I will, I’ll use the log from last week because every Friday I restart as a knew week,
1. Yes, I only eat when I’m hungry
2. Beans
3. Full
4. I do a 30 minute FIIT workout everyday.
Yes, I just eat when I'm hungry, and beans are the main source of macronutrients in my diet. I feel full and energy after eating, and I perform a 30-minute fit workout every day.
What is macronutrients?Micronutrients were necessary dietary components that organisms need in variable amounts throughout their lives to coordinate a variety of physiological processes that support health.
What is workout?A workout or training session intended to increase fitness, especially for athletic competition.
Were you hungry when you ate = I just eat when I'm hungryWhat was the main macronutrient in your nutritional choice = beans How did you feel after you ate = I feel full and energy after eatingWhat physical activities did you do for the day? = I perform a 30-minute fit workout every day.To know more about workout and macronutrient
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PLS HELP BRAINLIEST IS WILL BE GIVEN
Conflicts in healthcare settings are rare as the patient is always the focus of
attention.
True
False
Answer:false
Explanation:
Answer:
The answer is false.
Hope this helps!
Explanation:
which of the following should always be the top priority when designing and implementing an experimental study?
Ensuring the ethical treatment of participants should always be the top priority when designing and implementing an experimental study.
When conducting experimental studies, it is crucial to prioritize the ethical treatment of participants. This means safeguarding their rights, well-being, and dignity throughout the entire research process. Ethical considerations are fundamental in research and are guided by principles such as informed consent, privacy and confidentiality, minimizing harm, and ensuring voluntary participation.
Informed consent is a vital aspect of ethical research. Participants must be fully informed about the purpose, procedures, potential risks, and benefits of the study before providing their consent to participate. It is essential to respect participants' autonomy and ensure that their consent is voluntary and free from coercion.
Another ethical consideration is the protection of participants' privacy and confidentiality. Researchers must ensure that any personal information collected during the study is kept confidential and used only for research purposes. This helps maintain participants' trust and encourages their honest participation.
Minimizing harm is also of utmost importance. Researchers should take all necessary precautions to minimize any potential physical, psychological, or social harm to participants. This may include providing adequate support, debriefing, or referrals to appropriate resources if necessary.
By prioritizing ethical treatment, researchers can maintain the integrity and validity of their study while ensuring the protection and well-being of participants.
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What is a secondary function of the ear besides hearing?
A: balance
B: cleansing the air
C: creating homeostasis in the body
Answer:
AExplanation:
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True or false. Food is contaminated most often during processing.
Answer:
fulse
Explanation:
Which of the following is NOT one of the Gestalt principles of grouping?
a) similarity
b) proximity
c) closure
d) adaptation
Option d. adaption is not one of the Gestalt principles of grouping because there are Gestalt principles of grouping that are Proximity, Similarity, Continuity, Closure, and Connectedness/common fate, good form.
Gestalt psychologists made arguments that there are such laws or principles due to the fact that the mind has an innate or with the birth disposition to perceive or recognize patterns, groups of similar elements when we perceive them are based on certain rules /laws of human perception.
These elements are grouped or categorized into five categories of Gestalt principles:
Proximity - close to one another objects, elements or shapes appear to form groupsSimilarity - stimuli that physically appear to be the same or resemble each other as part of the same objectContinuity - two different objects appear as one.Closure - the tendency of the brain or mind to complete the incomplete information.common fate - the movement of the element with the same rate in the same direction looks that it's the part of the same stimuli.Good form - the tendency to group together forms of similar shape, pattern, or color.Thus, the correct answer is option d. adaption.
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why is it important to list and prioritize your short-, mid-, and long-term goals ahead of time?
It is important to set short-term goals so that you don't try to overwork yourself by doing to much stuff at once and it is important to set long-term goals so that you can have a plan for your life, so that you aren't wandering around aimlessly.
Goal setting is an essential component of conflicts intervention and indeed the development of effective resolving conflicts initiatives. It is essential in the processes of Visualizing, Action Evaluation, Facilitating, and Negotiation. Envisioning, also known as future picturing, is essentially a main objective process in which stakeholders attempt to imagine ideal futures. This is frequently a challenging task. People grow so accustomed to fighting that they lose sight of what life may be like without it.
Goals are thoughts about desired future situations that are frequently incorporated in a set of concepts that parties have about their situation and what can be done about it. The aspirations of leaders, the specific culture and social structure, and the individual complaints of group members are all factors that impact goal formulation.
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On a typical day in the United States, are there more patients in hospitals or nursing homes? Which type of care is growing more rapidly? What is the most rapidly growing form of LTC?
On a typical day in the United States, there are typically more patients in hospitals than in nursing homes. Hospitals provide acute care for individuals with serious medical conditions or those in need of specialized treatments, and their primary focus is on short-term care and treatment.
In terms of growth, the long-term care (LTC) sector is experiencing a significant increase in demand due to the aging population and increased life expectancy. Among different types of LTC, home health care is growing more rapidly. Home health care allows individuals to receive necessary care and support in the comfort of their own homes. It offers a range of services, including medical care, assistance with daily activities, and rehabilitation. This form of LTC allows individuals to maintain their independence and receive personalized care tailored to their specific needs.
While home health care is experiencing rapid growth, it is essential to note that the overall LTC industry encompasses various types of care, including nursing homes, assisted living facilities, adult day care centers, and hospice care. The growth rate may vary among these different forms of LTC based on factors such as demographics, healthcare policies, and individual preferences.
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3. A(n) ________ is a way to identify your skills and interests.
Answer:
An self assessment is a way to identify your skills and interests.
Explanation:
Did this assignment
A nurse midwife is a specialist under the registered nurse career level.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
In the United States, a Certified Nurse-Midwife (CNM) is a nurse midwife who exceeds the International Confederation of Midwives essential competencies for a midwife and is also an advanced practice registered nurse, having completed registered nursing and midwifery education leading to practice as a nurse midwife and credentialing as a Certified Nurse-Midwife. CNMs provide care of women across their lifespan, including pregnancy and the postpartum period, and well woman care and birth control
Explanation:
so truee