what are the functions of the macula densa? check all that apply. synthesize and store contract when stimulated by stretch detect changes in the sodium chloride concentration within the signaling granular cells to release renin

Answers

Answer 1

Macula densa is responsible for monitoring the Nacl concentration inside the granular cells.

What are macula densa cells?

Macula densa cells are specialized epithelial cells found in distal convoluted tubule.

These cells are renal sensor elements that have the ability to find changes in distal tubular fluid compositions, after which they transmit signals to glomerular vascular elements. This mechanism plays a crucial role in regulating blood flow and glomerular filtration rate.

These macula densa cells take care of salt concentrations within the tubules which helps regulate renal blood flow through dilation and afferent arteriole constriction. These cells also contain rennin granules which help in sending out wider signals that control vascular resistance.

Hence, macula densa cells are mostly responsible for regulation of salt concentrations inside cells.

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Related Questions

The air masses that originate in low latitude are called
a) polar b) tropical c) continental d) marine

Answers

The air masses that originate in low latitude are called b) tropical.

Air masses are large bodies of air with similar temperature and humidity characteristics. The air masses that originate in low latitudes near the equator are called tropical air masses. These air masses are typically warm and moist due to the high temperatures and abundant moisture present in tropical regions. As these air masses move away from the equator, they can influence weather patterns and climate in the regions they encounter.

Tropical air masses are important in shaping weather conditions in many parts of the world, particularly in tropical and subtropical regions. When tropical air masses interact with other air masses, such as polar air masses, it can lead to the formation of weather systems, including fronts, storms, and precipitation. Understanding the characteristics and movement of tropical air masses is essential for meteorologists and climatologists in predicting weather patterns and studying climate dynamics.

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explain why genetic variation within a population is a prerequisite for evolution

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If a trait is advantageous and helps the individual survive and reproduce, the genetic variation is more likely to be passed to the next generation

Different phenotypes can be introduced into an organism by genetic changes that change gene activity or protein function. The likelihood of a genetic variant being passed down to the following generation increases if a trait is favourable and aids the individual in surviving and procreating (a process known as natural selection).

Genetic variation is an important force in evolution as it allows natural selection to increase or decrease frequency of alleles already in the population.

Genetic variation can be caused by mutation (which can create entirely new alleles in a population), random mating, random fertilisation, and recombination between homologous chromosomes during meiosis (which reshuffles alleles within an organism’s offspring).

Genetic variation is advantageous to a population because it enables some individuals to adapt to the environment while maintaining the survival of the population.

Key Terms

genetic diversity: the level of biodiversity, refers to the total number of genetic characteristics in the genetic makeup of a species

crossing over: the exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes that results in recombinant chromosomes

phenotypic variation: variation (due to underlying heritable genetic variation); a fundamental prerequisite for evolution by natural selection

genetic variation: variation in alleles of genes that occurs both within and among populations

Genetic Variation

Genetic variation is a measure of the genetic differences that exist within a population. The genetic variation of an entire species is often called genetic diversity. Genetic variations are the differences in DNA segments or genes between individuals and each variation of a gene is called an allele. For example, a population with many different alleles at a single chromosome locus has a high amount of genetic variation. Genetic variation is essential for natural selection because natural selection can only increase or decrease frequency of alleles that already exist in the population.

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The thoracic duct ascends through the posterior mediastinum, between the thoracic aorta on the left and the azygos vein on the right. Question 1 options:
True
False

Answers

True. The thoracic duct is the largest lymphatic vessel in the body and plays a crucial role in the lymphatic system. It begins in the abdomen, near the second lumbar vertebra, and ascends through the posterior mediastinum of the thoracic cavity.

It runs behind the esophagus and in front of the vertebral bodies, alongside the thoracic aorta on the left side. As it continues its ascent, it curves to the left and passes behind the aortic arch and left bronchus. Eventually, it reaches the base of the neck, where it drains into the left subclavian vein.

This anatomical pathway allows the thoracic duct to effectively collect lymphatic fluid from the lower extremities, abdomen, and left upper body, and return it to the bloodstream.

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Can some one help me plzzzzzz

Can some one help me plzzzzzz

Answers

Answer:

you are correct it is it relieves energy from mitochondria

definition of tissue​

Answers

The group of similar cells which work together to perform a particular function is called a tissue....

You may take help from the attachment....

definition of tissue

What are the base pairs that are found in DNA?​

Answers

any of the pairs of the hydrogen-bonded purine and pyrimidine bases that form the links between the sugar-phosphate backbones of nucleic acid molecules: the pairs are adenine and thymine in DNA, adenine and uracil in RNA, and guanine and cytosine in both DNA and RNA.

Which statement is FALSE about epigenetic modifications?
a. The tails of the nucleosome octamer components can be modified with methylation
b. The tails of the nucleosome octamer components can be modified with acetylation
c. Only non-DNA components of chromatin are modified with epigenetic markers
d. Epigenetic modifications control whether a region is euchromatin or heterochromatin

Answers

The false statement about epigenetic modifications is:
c. Only non-DNA components of chromatin are modified with epigenetic markers.

Epigenetic modifications refer to changes in gene expression that do not involve changes to the underlying DNA sequence. These modifications can be inherited and can influence how genes are turned on or off in different cells or at different stages of development.

a. The tails of the nucleosome octamer components can be modified with methylation: This statement is true. Methylation of the tails of nucleosome octamer components, which are made up of histone proteins, can affect gene expression by either activating or repressing the associated genes.

b. The tails of the nucleosome octamer components can be modified with acetylation: This statement is also true. Acetylation of histone tails is another type of epigenetic modification that can influence gene expression. Acetylation generally leads to gene activation by relaxing the chromatin structure and allowing transcription factors to access the DNA.

d. Epigenetic modifications control whether a region is euchromatin or heterochromatin: This statement is true. Epigenetic modifications play a crucial role in determining whether a region of DNA is in a euchromatin state, which is more accessible for gene expression, or a heterochromatin state, which is more condensed and less accessible for gene expression.

In summary, the false statement is c. Only non-DNA components of chromatin are modified with epigenetic markers. Epigenetic modifications can occur on both DNA and non-DNA components of chromatin, such as histone proteins. These modifications can have significant impacts on gene expression and are essential for cellular development and function.

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what allows for substances to move between the nucleus and cytoplasm?

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Nuclear pores allow for substances to move between the nucleus and cytoplasm.

Nuclear pores are complex structures located on the nuclear envelope, which is the double membrane that surrounds the nucleus. These pores act as gateways or channels that facilitate the transport of molecules between the nucleus and the cytoplasm. They allow for the passage of various substances, including proteins, RNA molecules, and certain ions.

Nuclear pores consist of large protein complexes called nucleoporins, which form a selective barrier controlling the movement of molecules. The nucleoporins create a mesh-like structure with small openings, allowing small molecules and ions to diffuse freely. However, the passage of larger molecules, such as proteins and RNA, requires a more regulated process.

To facilitate the transport of larger molecules, the nuclear pore complex interacts with transport proteins known as karyopherins. These karyopherins act as shuttles, binding to cargo molecules and guiding them through the nuclear pores. There are two types of karyopherins: importins and exportins. Importins transport molecules from the cytoplasm into the nucleus, while exportins transport molecules from the nucleus to the cytoplasm.

The presence of nuclear pores and their interaction with transport proteins allow for the movement of substances between the nucleus and cytoplasm. This controlled transport is crucial for maintaining the integrity and functionality of the cell, as it allows for the exchange of genetic material, regulatory molecules, and other essential components between these two compartments

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how would expect venous pressures to compare to arterial pressure? why?

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Venous pressures are generally lower than arterial pressures due to the differences in their respective functions and the resistance offered by arterial walls.

Venous pressures are expected to be lower than arterial pressures. Arterial pressure refers to the force exerted by the blood against the walls of arteries, generated by the pumping action of the heart during systole.

Arteries are responsible for transporting oxygenated blood away from the heart to tissues throughout the body.

The arterial system experiences higher pressure due to the pumping action of the heart, the elastic properties of arterial walls, and the need to maintain blood flow against resistance.

In contrast, venous pressure refers to the force exerted by the blood in the veins. Veins carry deoxygenated blood back to the heart.

The veins are thinner-walled and less elastic compared to arteries, which means they have less ability to withstand and maintain high pressures.

Moreover, venous return is aided by various mechanisms, such as the contraction of surrounding muscles, the presence of one-way valves, and the respiratory pump (breathing movements).

These mechanisms assist in propelling blood towards the heart and overcoming the resistance in the venous system, resulting in lower venous pressures compared to arterial pressures.

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What is the logical first step in soil analysis?

Examination of minerals and rocks under high-power magnification

Search for the presence of debris under low-power magnification

Use of the density-gradient tube technique

Comparison of dried soil samples for color and texture

Answers

The logical first step in soil analysis is search for the presence of debris under low-power magnification.

option B.

What is the logical first step in soil analysis?

The logical first step in soil analysis would involve selecting a location that is representative of the entire area being studied, and taking soil samples from multiple points within that location to create a composite sample.

Thus, this process involves searching for the presence of debris under low-power magnification.

Once the composite sample is obtained, it should be air-dried and then sieved to remove any large debris or rocks. After these initial steps, the soil analysis can proceed to the more detailed examination of physical and chemical properties of the soil, which may include analysis of color, texture, mineral composition, and nutrient content, among other factors.

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Final answer:

The logical first step in soil analysis is the comparison of dried soil samples for color and texture. This helps provide initial insights into the composition and characteristics of the soil.

Explanation:

The logical first step in soil analysis is the comparison of dried soil samples for color and texture. This step helps provide initial insights into the composition and characteristics of the soil. By examining the color and texture of the soil, scientists can gain valuable information about its organic matter, mineral content, and overall fertility.

For example, the color of the soil can indicate the presence of certain minerals or organic matter. Darker soils may suggest higher organic content, while reddish soils may contain iron-rich minerals. Similarly, the texture of the soil refers to the relative proportions of sand, silt, and clay particles, which affect its water-holding capacity and drainage.

Once the color and texture have been assessed, further analysis can be carried out to determine other properties of the soil, such as its pH level, nutrient content, and microbial activity, using more specialized techniques and equipment.

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which arteries are highlighted? arteries that arise from the aortic bifurcation.which arteries are highlighted? common iliac external iliac gonadal internal iliac

Answers

The arteries highlighted are the common iliac arteries arteries are highlighted arteries that arise from the aortic

The aortic bifurcation is the point where the abdominal aorta splits into the left and right common iliac arteries. These arteries are the first branches of the abdominal aorta and they supply blood to the pelvis, the lower limbs, and the abdominal wall.

The external iliac artery is a branch of the common iliac artery and it supplies blood to the lower limbs. The gonadal arteries are branches of the abdominal aorta that supply blood to the reproductive organs, and they do not arise from the aortic bifurcation. The internal iliac arteries are also branches of the common iliac arteries, but they supply blood to the pelvic organs and the gluteal region.

Therefore, in the given options, only the common iliac artery arises from the aortic bifurcation, so that is the correct answer.

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Did you know that there is a special type of doctor who studies and treats skin? This type of doctor, a dermatologist, specializes in caring for skin, hair, and nails. Dermatologists diagnose and treat a variety of skin problems ranging from acne to psoriasis to dangerous cancers. To become a dermatologist, you spend about ten years in school and training after you graduate from high school. Then you must pass a certification test. Although becoming a dermatologist is not easy, it can be a rewarding career!


Evaluate Why do you think dermatologists are important? (Link concepts of the cell theory, specialized cells, multicellular organisms, types of cells, etc.) (3-5 sentences)
PLSSSSSSSSSSS ANSWER!!! 35 POINTS

Answers

Dermatologist are the highly trained doctors which make sure that the skin is in healthy state without any infection. Dermatologists help individuals to overcome different skin, hair and nails problems.


What is dermatology?

Dermatology is the branch of medical science which deals with skin, hair, nails and cosmetics problems. Skin is the first line of defense in our body. It is the largest organ of the body which covers the outer layer of the whole body.

Skin conditions range from small acne to life-threatening skin cancer. Dermatologists address chronic skin conditions, such as eczema or psoriasis. The skin is the entry point to the body, and understanding what is going on in the skin can help in understanding what may be happening inside the body.

These medical professionals play a role in uncovering the latest medical treatments for skin conditions.

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Which of the following mutations would most likely affect the offspring of an
adult cat?
O A. A mutation in the cells of an adult cat's skeletal system
B. A mutation in the cells of an adult cat's respiratory system
O C. A mutation in the cells of an adult cat's reproductive system
O D. A mutation in the cells of an adult cat's muscular system

Answers

Answer:

C . mutation in the cells of an adult cat's reproductive system

Explanation:

the adult cat will pass on the mutation to the offspring  during the reproduction

What type of substance is formed when two or more substances are

mixed completely?

Answers

When homogeneous mixture substances are mixed completely, a new substance called a mixture is formed. This is because the properties of the substances in the mixture remain unchanged and they can be easily separated by physical means.

Mixtures can be classified into two main types: homogeneous mixtures and heterogeneous mixtures. Homogeneous mixtures have a uniform composition throughout, meaning that the substances are evenly distributed and cannot be visibly distinguished. Heterogeneous mixtures, on the other hand, have a non-uniform composition, meaning that the substances are unevenly distributed and can be visibly distinguished. Overall, mixtures play an important role in our daily lives and are used in various industries such as pharmaceuticals, agriculture, and manufacturing.

A homogeneous mixture is a type of mixture where the components are evenly distributed throughout, resulting in a uniform appearance and composition. Some common examples of homogeneous mixtures include solutions, such as saltwater or sugar dissolved in water.

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Explain why the absorption of UV light by double-stranded DNA increases (the hyperchromic effect) when the DNA is denatured.

Answers

The absorption of UV light by double-stranded DNA increases (the hyperchromic effect) when the DNA is denatured due to a change in the conformation of DNA.

DNA molecules exist as double-stranded structures, held together by hydrogen bonds between the bases. When exposed to heat or chemicals, these bonds break down, causing the DNA to unwind, or denature. When the DNA is denatured, it undergoes a structural transition from the B-form to the more open and relaxed structure of the single-stranded DNA (ssDNA).

Due to the loss of base pairing interactions, the nucleobases become more exposed to the environment, leading to an increase in the absorption of UV light, which causes the hyperchromic effect. In ssDNA, the nucleobases have more freedom of movement, and therefore more available energy states. This results in increased absorbance of UV light, which can be detected by spectrophotometric measurements. In summary, when DNA is denatured, the hyperchromic effect occurs due to an increase in the number of accessible bases to interact with the UV light.

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Two different mutations are identified in a haploid strain of yeast. The first prevents the synthesis of adenine by a nonsense mutation of the ade-1 gene. In this mutation, a base-pair substitution changes a tryptophan codon (UGG) to a stop codon (UGA). The second affects one of several duplicate tRNA genes. This base-pair substitution mutation changes the anticodon sequence of a tRNATrp from 3'-ACC - 5' to 3'-ACU - 5'1. Do you consider the second mutation to be a forward mutation or a reversion?Do you consider the second mutation to be a forward mutation or a reversion? second-site reversion (suppressor) forward mutation true reversion intragenic reversion

Answers

The second mutation, which changes the anticodon sequence of a tRNATrp from 3'-ACC - 5' to 3'-ACU - 5', is considered a suppressor or second-site reversion.

The anticodon is a critical component of transfer RNA (tRNA), a type of RNA molecule involved in protein synthesis. It plays a crucial role in ensuring the accurate translation of genetic information from DNA to proteins during the process of translation.

The anticodon is a sequence of three nucleotides located on one end of the tRNA molecule. It specifically binds to the complementary codon on the messenger RNA (mRNA) during translation. Codons are sequences of three nucleotides on mRNA that code for a specific amino acid. The anticodon's base pairing with the codon ensures that the correct amino acid is incorporated into the growing protein chain.

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Describe the difference in MPS (and hypertrophy) with overfeeding in an untrained/obese group compared to a group of trained individuals.

Answers

In an untrained/obese group, overfeeding can lead to an increase in muscle protein synthesis (MPS) and hypertrophy, but the response may be blunted compared to a group of trained individuals.

Trained individuals generally have a higher baseline level of MPS and muscle mass, which may limit the extent of MPS and hypertrophy in response to overfeeding.

In an untrained or obese group, overfeeding can provide an excess of nutrients, including protein, which can stimulate MPS and promote muscle hypertrophy. However, several factors may affect the response to overfeeding in this group. Untrained individuals may have lower baseline levels of MPS and muscle mass compared to trained individuals, which can limit the potential for substantial increases in MPS and hypertrophy.

Additionally, obesity is associated with metabolic dysregulation, such as insulin resistance and chronic inflammation, which can negatively impact muscle protein metabolism. These metabolic disturbances can impair the anabolic response to overfeeding and limit the extent of MPS and hypertrophy.

On the other hand, trained individuals who regularly engage in resistance exercise have already established a higher baseline level of MPS and muscle mass. Their muscles are more sensitive to the anabolic stimuli of overfeeding and may exhibit a greater response in terms of MPS and hypertrophy. Trained individuals also tend to have better metabolic health, which can further enhance the muscle protein synthesis response to overfeeding.

In summary, while both untrained/obese individuals and trained individuals may experience increases in MPS and hypertrophy with overfeeding, the response in the untrained/obese group may be blunted due to lower baseline levels of MPS, metabolic dysregulation, and impaired muscle protein metabolism. Trained individuals, with their higher baseline levels of MPS and muscle mass, may exhibit a more pronounced response to overfeeding in terms of MPS and hypertrophy.

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Utah has the largest concentration of oil shale and tar sands in the United States. Which statement identifies a disadvantage to this location?

Answers

The statement that effectively recognizes the disadvantage of the given location would be:

b). The contamination of nearby bodies of water could occur.

The disadvantage of the location of the maximum congregation of oil shale and tar sands could be the pollution that it can cause to the water bodies that exist in the nearby area. This pollution can affect aquatic life(plants and animals) and the people residing there as well.The mixture of various components like clay, bitumen, sand, etc. can impact the water quality and ultimately the processes in which it is used(industries and household usage).

Thus, option b is the correct answer.

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Answer:

The area is limited in resources for oil extraction.

Explanation:

Although the state of Utah has a large concentration of tar sands and oil shale, it does not have much water nearby (water is a resource needed for oil extraction). This is a huge and pivotal disadvantage, and one of the reasons why tar sands and oil shale in Utah have not been exploited.

Which of the following terms refers to a urinary output of less than 100 mL per day?
a. albuminuria
b. bacteriuria
c. polyuria
d. anuria

Answers

The term that refers to a urinary output of less than 100 mL per day is d. anuria.

Anuria is a medical term used to describe a condition where there is a significant decrease or absence of urine production. It is defined as a urinary output of less than 100 mL per day. Anuria can be caused by various factors, including kidney failure, severe dehydration, urinary tract obstruction, or other underlying medical conditions.

To provide some context, let's briefly explain the other terms mentioned:

a. Albuminuria: This term refers to the presence of albumin (a protein) in the urine. It can be an indication of kidney damage or dysfunction, such as in conditions like diabetic nephropathy or kidney disease.

b. Bacteriuria: Bacteriuria is the presence of bacteria in the urine. It typically indicates a urinary tract infection (UTI) and is characterized by the growth of bacteria in the urinary system.

c. Polyuria: Polyuria is the opposite of anuria. It refers to abnormally high urine output, typically exceeding 2,500 mL (2.5 liters) per day. Polyuria can occur due to various reasons, including excessive fluid intake, certain medications, hormonal imbalances, or underlying medical conditions like diabetes mellitus.

In summary, anuria specifically refers to a urinary output of less than 100 mL per day, indicating a significant decrease or absence of urine production. It is important to note that anuria can be a serious medical condition requiring prompt evaluation and treatment, as it may indicate underlying kidney dysfunction or other health issues.

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Two individuals have the same underlying genotype, but differ in their phenotypes. What best explains this?.

Answers

Phenotypic ratios may be impacted by dominance patterns among alleles for a particular attribute, but interactions among several genes may also have an effect on phenotype.

How are genotype and phenotype different?

Genotype is the distinctive DNA pattern of each individual. The two alleles a person acquired for a single gene are more specifically referred to by this phrase. The clinical appearance of a patient's genotype is known as the phenotype.

Two people could have the same genotype but different phenotypes, is it possible?

Although not the only influence, an organism's genotype has a significant role in how its phenotype develops (and is by far the largest for morphology). Even two creatures with the same genotype typically have different phenotypes. With monozygous, one encounters this frequently.

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Drag the tiles to the boxes to form correct pairs. Not all tiles will be used. Match each type of skeletal marking to its function

Answers

Answer:

Tubercle: allows tendons to attach to bone

Foramen: Allows blood vessels and nerves to travel through bone.

Fossa: Allows to bones to form a joint.

Explanation:

The tubercle or tuberosity in the human seletal system, is a protrusion that allows for attachment of skeletal muscles. The muscles attach by tendons, where the enthesis is the connective tissue between the tendon and bone.

Foramina inside the body of humans and other animals typically allow muscles, nerves, arteries, veins, or other structures to connect one part of the body with another.

Answer:

see image below

Explanation:

Drag the tiles to the boxes to form correct pairs. Not all tiles will be used. Match each type of skeletal

Does anyone know what kind of egg this is?

Does anyone know what kind of egg this is?

Answers

I think it’s some kind of egg bird

Name the irregular ridges of muscle lining the ventricles that are not indirectly to the atrioventricular values.

Answers

The trabeculae carnage (columnar carnage, or meaty ridges) are rounded or irregular muscular columns that project from the inner surface of the right and left ventricle of the heart.

The inner surface of each ventricle has an irregular surface of ridges and folds called trabeculae carnage. The interventricular septum separates the two ventricles.

Squamous cell nuclei tend to be flat, horizontal, and elliptical, mirroring the form of the cell. The endothelium is the epithelial tissue that lines vessels of the lymphatic and cardiovascular systems.

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The irregular ridges of muscle lining the ventricles are Trabeculae carnage.

The tricuspid valve is the atrioventricular valve on the right side of the heart. It separates the right atrium and right ventricle. The Purkinje fibers lie beneath the endocardium. They are larger than cardiomyocytes but have fewer myofibrils more glycogen and mitochondria, and no T-tubules.

These cells are connected by desmosomes and gap junctions but not by intercalated discs. The right ventricle is very muscular. In contrast to the right atrium, which is mostly smooth-walled, it has many muscular ridges called trabeculae. The endothelium is the epithelial tissue that lines the blood vessels of the lymphatic and cardiovascular systems and is composed of a single layer of squamous epithelial cells.

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How does the nucleus help the nerve cell?

Answers

The nucleus of a nerve cell helps it perform its function by producing ribosomes, which are responsible for translating messenger RNA into protein molecules, and by providing a site for the translation of mRNA into protein molecules

What are nerve cells?

Nerve cells are known as neurons. They are the fundamental unit of the nervous system, transmitting messages between different parts of the body, allowing us to react to stimuli such as light, sound, and heat. They are able to communicate with each other by means of chemical signals, which are passed across a tiny gap called a synapse.

The nucleus is the most important organelle present in the neuron. It is responsible for maintaining the genetic material of the cell, as well as participating in the synthesis of proteins that are used to carry out the cell's normal functions.

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A curly-haired person and a straight-haired person mate and all their offspring have wavy hair (note that wavy hair is a phenotype in between that of the curly and straight-haired individuals). What would be the result of a cross between two wavy-haired individuals? (give phenotype ratio)

Answers

This Punnett square indicates that the offspring have a 25% probability of having curly hair (genotype: WW), a 50% chance of having wavy hair (genotype: Ww), and a 25% chance of having straight hair (genotype: ww).

As a result, the offspring would have a 1:2:1 phenotypic ratio, which means that for every child with straight or curly hair, there would be two children with wavy hair.

What is Punnett square?The potential genotypes and traits of offspring from a cross between two individuals are predicted using a Punnett square, which is a grid. The early 20th-century British geneticist Reginald Punnett, who invented the method, is honored by the name of the Punnett square.To use a Punnett square, you must first determine which alleles each parent contributed to the trait of interest. When analyzing the inheritance of eye color, for instance, you might use the letters "B" to denote the dominant brown allele and the letters "b" to denote the recessive blue allele.The Punnett square is an effective tool for foretelling potential consequences of genetic crossings and comprehending inheritance patterns.

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The Middle East and Eurasia (primarily Russia) have about 70% of the world's
Select one:
Оа.
natural gas reserves.
on
O b. coal reserves.
O coil reserves.
O d. peat reserves.

Answers

a. Natural gas reserves

Which process allows crime scene investigators to match a suspect's DNA with a crime scene's DNA?​

Answers

Answer:

DNA profiling (also called DNA fingerprinting) is the process of determining an individual's DNA characteristics

Explanation:

Once the global weather started dramatically changing, about how long did it take to go from our normal temperate climate to an ice age?.

Answers

The global weather started dramatically changing ,it take to go from our normal temperate climate to an ice age a few hours.

How soon does climate change start to happen?Climate refers to climatic changes over longer time periods, typically 30 years or more, as opposed to weather, which refers to short-term changes in the atmosphere.It just took a few hours for the temperature to drastically change over the world, going from our typical temperate environment to an ice age.Not likely, according to Gebbie, because even if the atmosphere cools, the melting ice sheets would not easily grow back to their original size due to the extreme heat that has already been baked into the Earth's system.We have long known that a new ice age could result from global warming.

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Match the term to its description.

Match the term to its description.

Answers

Answer:

\( \color{magenta} \huge{ \boxed{answer}}\)Sun - D. The center star of our solar systemStar - B. An astronomical body that orbits arounda planet

Universe - A. All existing matter, energy, and space

Moon - C. A sphere of extremely hot plasma held togetherby its own gravity.

hopefully help=)

It s all correct=)

Explanation:

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Which is a strong synthetic polymer that can be used to make toys and bottles? polystyrene foam polyethylene nylon vulcanized rubber

Answers

Answer:

i think its the second one im doing the test right now hopes this helps have a good rest of your day

Explanation:

Answer:

B=polyethylene should be the right answer

Explanation:

Other Questions
scott brushes his teeth 18 times a day. each time, he uses exactly 83 strokes up and 83 strokes down. after he eats, he must brush twice with two particular brands of toothpaste. scott's behavior is consistent with a(n. disorder. the acme company is a perfect competitor in its input markets and its output market. its average product of labor is at its maximum and equals 30. the marginal revenue product of labor is $300. the price of its output: a. is $0.10. you may assume that: (a) earthquakes in different regions are independent, and (b) there is at most one earthquake during a one-hour period in any given region. note that there can be multiple earthquakes in the entire country during a one-hour period 26. A nurse enters an adult clients room and find the client unresponsiveness. After determining. pulse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?A. Begin chest compressionB. Open the client airwayC. Summon the code teamD. Administer rescue breathing bathe a client who had an amputation 2 days ago. assist a client to ambulate using a gait belt. review a low-sodium diet for a client who has hypertension. explain oral hygiene to a client receiving chemotherapy. feed a client who had a stroke 3 months ago. initiated in the united states by john augustus in boston during 1841 and resulted in almost 2,000 persons between 1841-1858 avoiding jail or prison. eventually enshrined in law with the first statute in massachusetts in 1878. a technician is rebuilding an engine and notices that one tooth is missing from the crank sensor pulse ring. technician a says the pulse ring is broken and will have to be replaced. technician b says that missing tooth identifies when cylinder The constitutional rights of inmates in prison are conditional, rather than absolute, becausethe rights of prisoners are constrained by the legitimate needs of the correctional institution.Prisoners' rights must be balanced against the security, order maintenance, and treatment needs of correctional institutions. sanitary landfills are commonly used in the united states to manage solid waste. since decomposition in sanitary landfills relies upon anaerobic bacteria (those that live in oxygen-poor environments), a large amount of is produced.A. methaneB. carbon dioxideC. oxygenD. nitrogenE. sulfur Which one of the following statements must hold for EVERY CASE concerning the residual sums of squares for the restricted and unrestricted regressions? (a) URSS > RRSS (b) URSS RRSS (c) RRSS > URSS (d) RRSS URSS.Which one of the following is the most appropriate as a definition of R 2 in the context that the term is usually used? (a) It is the proportion of the total variability of y that is explained by the model (b) It is the proportion of the total variability of y about its mean value that is explained by the model (c) It is the correlation between the fitted values and the residual