the nurse is seeing an adolescent client in the office for a prenatal visit. the client is afraid of gaining more than 7 pounds of weight during the pregnancy. which response by the nurse explains why the suggested amount of weight gain is more than 7 pounds?

Answers

Answer 1

The nurse is seeing an adolescent client in the office for a prenatal visit. The client is afraid of gaining more than 7 pounds of weight during the pregnancy. The response by the nurse that explains why the suggested amount of weight gain is more than 7 pounds is: "Your ideal weight gain in pregnancy depends on your pre-pregnancy weight, body mass index (BMI), and overall health".

As a result, pregnant adolescents are advised to gain 25 to 35 pounds over the course of the pregnancy, according to the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists (ACOG). During pregnancy, women gain weight as the fetus grows and as their body changes to support the developing baby.

Pregnant teens who gain too little weight are more likely to deliver an underweight baby. Inadequate weight gain during pregnancy also raises the risk of premature birth and developmental problems in babies. Teenagers who gain too much weight during pregnancy are more likely to develop hypertension, gestational diabetes, and other health problems.

Therefore, prenatal visits are highly recommended as they provide an opportunity for healthcare providers to monitor your weight gain and offer you guidance on how to keep your weight within a healthy range. Prenatal visits can help to ensure that you and your baby are healthy throughout the pregnancy.

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Related Questions

Which term means to focus on one idea or aspect of something to the exclusion of all others?
focus on appearance
egocentrism
guided participation
centration

Answers

im pretty sure its centration

A dementia patient often demonstrates sundowning. Why does the nursing assistant monitor the patient closely starting in the late afternoon?

People with sundowners often exhibit hallucinations, and the nursing assistant is ready to respond to difficult behavior.
People with sundowners often lose their appetites, and the nursing assistant is monitoring the patient’s nutrition and hydration.
People with sundowners often wander, and the nursing assistant is monitoring the patient’s safety.
People with sundowners often pillage, and the nursing assistant is ready to respond to difficult behavior.

Answers

Answer:

People who have sundowners frequently wander, and the nursing assistant is keeping an eye on the patient's safety. Sundowning is a common occurrence in dementia patients, in which the patient gets agitated, disoriented, or restless in the late afternoon or evening. This can result in roaming, putting the patient at danger of falls or other mishaps. As a result, the nursing assistant must continuously observe the patient throughout this period to safeguard their safety.

sometimes you just want to yeet people out windows. How do you not do this.

Answers

scream in the shower , sing a song super loud

1 go outside at 11:00 pm and scream and shout. draw them and draw how you feel then go to some form of lake/ river and let your feeling of hate drift away...

a 5-year-old boy comes to the clinic with a chief complaint of four days of progressively worsening fever and that has been minimally responsive to acetaminophen. the patient complains of sore throat and decreased appetite. his sister had a positive rapid strep test and is now being treated with amoxicillin. your concern is for group a strep. what is the next best step in management?

Answers

In a 5-year-old boy with a sore throat, fever, and a family member who has tested positive for group A strep, the next best step in management would be to perform a rapid antigen detection test (RADT) or a throat culture to confirm the presence of group A strep infection.

Testing for group A strep is important in this case because it can help guide appropriate treatment and prevent potential complications associated with untreated strep infections, such as rheumatic fever or kidney damage. The RADT is a quick and easy test that can be performed in the clinic to detect the presence of group A strep antigens in a throat swab sample. If the RADT is negative, a throat culture can be sent to a laboratory for more sensitive testing.

If the test results are positive for group A strep, the patient should be treated promptly with antibiotics to prevent the spread of infection and reduce the risk of complications. Amoxicillin is a first-line antibiotic for treating group A strep infections in children, so this may be a suitable treatment option for this patient. However, the healthcare provider should also consider the patient's medical history and any potential allergies or contraindications to specific antibiotics when choosing a treatment plan.

Overall, accurate diagnosis and prompt treatment of group A strep infections are essential to ensure optimal clinical outcomes and prevent potential complications.

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Many developmentalists believe that one sign of mental health in older adults is _____.

A) denying death
B) feeling guilty for what is undone
C) accepting mortality
D) focusing on the limits of old age

Answers

Many developmentalists believe that one sign of mental health in older adults is C) Accepting mortality.

According to many developmentalists, accepting mortality is considered a sign of mental health in older adults. Here's an explanation of each option:

A) Denying death: Denying or avoiding thoughts and discussions about death is not typically viewed as a sign of mental health in older adults. It may indicate fear or difficulty in addressing the reality of mortality.

B) Feeling guilty for what is undone: Persistent feelings of guilt for unfinished tasks or regrets can indicate unresolved issues and may negatively impact mental well-being. It is not generally considered a sign of mental health in older adults.

C) Accepting mortality: As individuals age, accepting the inevitability of death and coming to terms with one's mortality is often seen as a positive psychological adjustment. It reflects a realistic understanding of the life cycle and can contribute to overall mental well-being.

D) Focusing on the limits of old age: Excessive focus on the limitations and challenges associated with old age may lead to pessimism or a negative outlook on life. While it is essential to acknowledge and address these limitations, solely focusing on them is not considered a sign of optimal mental health.

In summary, accepting mortality is generally regarded as a sign of mental health in older adults. It indicates a realistic understanding and acceptance of the natural progression of life, contributing to psychological well-being and emotional resilience.

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Carbohydrates of biological importance to elderly and children

Answers

Answer:

They provide energy to the bodies of the elderly and children through particularly glucose

Answer:

Add energy in adults

glucose in children

Explanation:

What features of EHRs are important to training specialists

Answers

Training specialists need to be well aware of the wide variety of information stored in electronic health records. For everyday practice, one needs to know how and when to pull up such documents such as patient demographics, medical diagnoses, and treatments. Knowing where different providers' orders are stored is also crucial, for knowing when a specific order will take effect. There's a lot more that goes into learning what an EHR does than just understanding its features - there's a whole science behind how these systems work.

Although the extent to which EHRs are beneficial for training specialists is still debated, it is known that they can help to minimize errors in clinical documentation and improve efficiency. This has been shown across multiple studies - some children hospitals have seen reduced medication discrepancies after implementing electronic health records. The completion of tasks, including filling laboratory orders and checking labs, also improved significantly when using modern technology during patient care rounds at a large research hospital in New York. At the same time, some experts argue that process-driven activities through these systems could reduce face-to-face interactions between doctors on team shifts with each other's patients on observation status, leading to

Bloodborne Pathogens Scenario #2
You finally saved up enough money to go get a tattoo that you've been wanting for months. The tattoo
artist does awesome work and was recommended by several friends. When you get to the shop and sit
down in the chair when you notice the tools he plans on using didn't come out of an autoclave (which
cleans and sterilizes) and they didn't come out a wrapper indicated they are new. What would you do?
Do you allow him to continue with the tattoo knowing that these tools could've been used before? Tell
me what you do and why?
no I will get up out my chair because it is not clean and it is germs and you can catch hiv from the tools
1

Answers

Answer:

No i would get up.

Explanation:

You could contract diseases from dirty tattoo nedles and could seriously get someone sick. I would go and find a better and more clean tattoo place.

What is difference between MRI and CT​

Answers

Answer:

MRI system uses strong magnets and detects different atoms using resonance frequency while CT employs use of X-rays

Explanation:

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Answer:

Magnetic Resonance Imaging and Computed Tomography

Which of the following are ways in which masks help prevent the spread of 5 points
viruses? (Select all that apply.) *
A Masks catch respiratory droplets before they evaporate, preventing them from
becoming microdroplets that can be easily carried through the air.
B. Masks reroute droplets to the sides of a person's face.
C. Masks reduce the momentum of droplets they don't catch.
D. Masks prevent us from breathing as deeply, making us produce fewer droplets.

Answers

the answer if i’m righr would be A

Which of the following is/are not a part of the innate immune defenses?
A. Fever
B. Inflammation
C. T cells
D. Natural killer (NK) cells

Answers

T cells are not part of the innate immune defenses.

The innate immune defenses are the body's first line of defense against infections and other foreign invaders. These defenses include physical barriers like the skin and mucous membranes, as well as cellular and chemical defenses such as fever and inflammation, natural killer (NK) cells, and phagocytic cells like neutrophils and macrophages. T cells, on the other hand, are part of the adaptive immune response, which develops over time in response to specific pathogens and provides long-term protection against future infections. While both innate and adaptive immune responses work together to protect the body, T cells are not part of the innate immune defenses.

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All of the following except ____________ are possible side effects of stigmas associated with mental disorders.
All of the following except
A. discrimination
B. labels
C. prejudice
D. negative stereotypes
Please select the best answer from the choices provided
PLEASE HELPPP WILL GIVR BRAINLIEST ANSWER

Answers

The possible side effects of stigmas associated with mental disorders should not include the labels.

What are stigmas?

Social stigma refer to the discrimination or the disapproval against the individual or the group that should be based on the social characteristics where it should be make a difference from the other society members.

Its side effects include the discrimination, prejudice. negative stereotypes, etc

Therefore, the option B is correct and the same should be considered.

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Which of the following changes in flow rate or in solute concentrations would NOT occur if the blood inflow rate were increased, increasing the pressure in the dialysis chamber?
A) The blood volume reaching the outflow tube per unit time would increase.
B) The osmotic concentration of proteins in the dialysate fluid would increase
C) The osmotic concentration of proteins in the blood outflow would increase or remain unchanged.
D) The filtration rate across the dialysis membrane would increase.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is - B) The osmotic concentration of proteins in the dialysate fluid would increase

Explanation:

If the blood inflow rate were increased, increasing the pressure in the dialysis chamber, there would be increase in the blood volume comes to the outflow tube per unit time. The filtration rate across the membrane would increase because the pressure in the chamber would be greater

The osmotic concentration of proteins would not be expected to increase in the dialysate fluid because proteins generally do not pass through the membrane

Which age group discussed in Chapter 5 have you communicated with the most?
Describe two communication techniques in Chapter 5 you can apply when communicating with this age group.
Explain the therapeutic responses the medical professionals used in the case study from the textbook about the age group you chose.

Answers

The communication techniques that are important when communicating with adults include seeking clarifications and listening.

What is communication?

It should be noted that communication simply means the exchange of information from a sender to a receiver through a medium.

The communication techniques that can be used to communicate with the age group include giving recognition, listening, seeking clarifications, etc.

Therapeutic responses are described as  to the actions and interventions undertaken by medical professionals in order to promote healing, alleviate symptoms, and improve the overall well-being of their patients and includes:

Providing medical treatmentOffering emotional support

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Concerning parenteral drug admininistration, which of these is untrue? A) more predictable compared to oral administration route B) not acceptable for unconscious patients C) rate of drug systemic absorption insensitive to drug solubility in interstitial fluid D) drug bypass first-pass metabolism

Answers

Answer:

not acceptable for unconscious

30.
A patient newly diagnosed with chronic myelocytic leukemia () has been prescribed treatment with
imatinib. The patient asks the nurse how imatinib works. What would be the nurse's best response?

Answers

Answer:

imatinib is a type of chemo. chemo works by slowing or stopping the growth of cancer cells which grow and divide quickly, but chemo can also destroy healthy cells that grow fast as well like red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets.. etc.

A patient is trapped in a car where only his head and arm are available for you to assess. How should you properly apply the patient
assessment process?
A. Perform the primary and secondary assessments only
B. Perform all of the parts of each assessment that you can physically perform
C. Perform the scene size-up, primary assessment, and then wait for extrication to perform the rest.
D. Perform the scene size-up, primary assessment, and then only perform reassessments skipping the secondary assessment until after extrication

Answers

Answer:

D

Explanation:

D is the correct answer

PLEASE HELP!
[Is this classical conditioning, or operant conditioning?]

Your psychology teacher decided that dissecting a sheep brain would be beneficial. You decided that it was absolutely gross. At dinner, your mom put mashed potatoes on your plate and then put a platter of a steamed cauliflower on the table. You looked at both the potatoes and cauliflower and imagined the sheep brain and left the table screaming.

Answers

Answer:

This is also an example of classical conditioning because the person associated the act of dissecting a sheep’s brain to the mashed potatoes and cauliflower on the table. The result of the experience is the act of ‘screaming’ at the sight because the association of the two stimuli is the reminder of the gruesome sheep brain dissection.

Explanation:

How do communicate location on the human bidy and why is it not feaible to simply use the up/ down

Answers

Answer:

You can use different terms like distal, proximal, lateral, medial, etc.

Explanation:

You shouldn't use up or down because it can get confusing and complicated.

a condition that affects the lungs is called...
A. cardiac, asthma
B. respiratory, diabetes
C. respiratory, asthma
D. cardiac, heart disease ​

Answers

Answer:

C

Explanation:

All the other things have things that are cardiac...cardiac is heart

Answer:

C. respiratory, asthma

Explanation:

Cardiac refers to the heart, diabetes is an endocrine disease, heart disease is, well, a disease of the heart.

Asthma is an example of a lung condition, and respiratory refers to the lungs.

Phlebotomists What is the primary duty?

Answers

The primary duty is to collect blood specimens. Hope this helped!
To draw and collect blood from patients for test results

First responding nurses would NOT use _____ as an indicator to identify victims of human trafficking.

(1)- unwanted pregnancy
(2)-childhood vaccination records
(3)-trauma similar to domestic violence
(4)-​AIDS​

Answers

I believe it is 4 as well! Good luck!

Answer:

Childhood vaccination records.

Explanation:

Childhood vaccination records are not typically used as an indicator to identify victims of human trafficking because they do not directly provide information about a person's trafficking status. While vaccination records can be important for assessing a person's overall health and medical history, they do not specifically point to human trafficking. Other indicators, such as signs of trauma similar to domestic violence, the presence of sexually transmitted infections including HIV/AIDS, and indicators of unwanted pregnancy, may be more relevant in identifying potential victims of human trafficking. These indicators are often considered in conjunction with other factors and a comprehensive assessment of the individual's situation.

Summary of the NAFLD condition. i.e., How does the condition develop? What is the effect on the body? Why is it a serious health condition?

Answers

Answer:

Fat deposits in the liver cells are a symptom of non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD). Because drinking alcohol does not cause it, it is referred to as "non-alcoholic". Obesity, insulin resistance, high blood sugar, and high blood fat levels are all associated with the illness.

In its early stages, NAFLD may not show any symptoms and frequently progresses gradually. However, over time, fat buildup can result in non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH), a disorder that causes liver scarring and inflammation. Cirrhosis, liver failure, and liver cancer can develop as a result of NASH.

Because it can result in severe consequences including liver damage and liver failure, which can be fatal, NAFLD is a significant medical disease. NAFLD also raises the chance of developing additional health issues including metabolic syndrome, type 2 diabetes, and cardiovascular disease. Therefore, early detection and treatment are essential to halt the disease's course and lower the risk of consequences.

which type of plan would be most appropriate for an individual on medicare and is concerned

Answers

The most thorough coverage is provided by Medicare Supplement Plan F. To begin with, it offers all of the advantages of the Medicare Supplement Plans A, B, and C.  

To begin with, it offers all of the advantages of the Medicare Supplement Plans A, B, and C. In addition, Plan F covers skilled nursing facility care, Medicare Part A and B deductibles, and emergency medical assistance for overseas travelers. Instead, your Medicare Part D Prescription Drug plan provides coverage for your medications. Plan F wouldn't cover your pharmaceutical costs because it only pays secondary to Original Medicare and not Medicare Part D. Any Medicare patient who qualified for Medicare before January 1, 2020, may sign up for Plan F.

The complete question is :

Which type of plan would be most appropriate for an individual on Medicare and concerned that Medicare will NOT pay for charges exceeding the approved amount?

Medical

Long term care

Medicare supplement Plan F

Comprehensive major medical

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please I am in class five so teach me five things​

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

Brown spelled backwords is  n word.

Amongus is dead

we live in a pendemic

tik toc is cancer

and lastly.

the end

1+1=2
2+2=4
3+3=6
4+4=8
5+5=10

B. Write your community health nursing diagnosis statement. 1. Explain how the health concern from your community health nursing diagnostic statement is linked to a health inequity or health disparity within the target population. a. Discuss the primary community resources and primary prevention resources currently in place to address the health concern. b. Discuss the underlying causes of the health concern. 2. Discuss the evidence-based practice associated with the Field Experience topic. a. Identify data about the selected Field Experience topic from the local (e.g., county), state, and/or national level.

Answers

Explanation:

rite your community health nursing diagnosis statement based on a chosen health concern you’ve identified in the simulation, related to Health People 2020 topics. The community health nursing diagnostic statement identifies a health concern or risk within Sentinel Town, identifies the affected group or community, suggests a cause, and logically discusses the evidence and/or support for the diagnosis.1. Explain how the health concern from the nursing diagnostic statement is linked to a health inequity or health disparity within the target population. The explanation accurately identifies a health inequity or health disparity within the target population and logically discusses how the identified health inequity or disparity is linked to the health concern identified in part B.a. Discuss the primary community resources and primary prevention resources currently available in Sentinel Town to address the health concern. The discussion appropriately details the primary community resources and the primary prevention resources available in Sentinel Town relevant to the identified health concern.b. Discuss the underlying causes of the health concern. The discussion accurately identifiespotential contributing factors for the health concern and logically proposes the underlying causes fo

The combining form for the organ covering the body

Answers

this will be the skin i’m pretty sure

What are 3 common sports injuries?

Answers

Sprains and strains are the most frequent sports injuries. Knee problems. muscular swell.

What type of sports injury occurs most frequently?

Strains. Because we engage so many muscles and tendons when we play or exercise, strains are by far the most frequent of all sports-related ailments.

What football injury is the most common?

Football knee injuries are most frequent, especially those to the menisci and anterior or posterior cruciate ligaments (ACL/PCL) (cartilage of the knee). These knee injuries may have a negative impact on a player's long-term participation in the sport.

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The most frequent sports wounds include: both strains and sprains, Knee problems and muscular swell. These are the 3 common sports injuries.

1. Sprain and strain:- A stretched or damaged ligament results in a sprain. A sprain can be brought on by falling, twisting, or even being struck. Sprains of the wrist and ankle are common. Symptoms include joint immobility, discomfort, edema, and bruising.

A strained or torn muscle or tendon is known as a strain. Strain can result from twisting or tugging these tissues. Muscle strains in the back and hamstrings are frequent. Pain, muscle spasms, swelling, and difficulty moving the affected muscle are some symptoms.

2. Knee injuries:- The most common disease affecting the knee is osteoarthritis. The cartilage in the knee gradually wears away, causing pain and swelling. Knee issues can also result from injuries to the tendons and ligaments. Anterior cruciate ligament damage is a frequent accident (ACL). Usually, a sudden twisting motion causes you to tear your ACL. Common sports injuries include ACL and other knee ailments.

3. swelling of muscles :- If something is inflamed, it may be swollen. The main muscles to be affected are around the shoulders, hips and thighs.

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Discuss the importance of keeping in entrance of keeping inventory records of controlled substance. Your answer should also include the importance of reconciling the log and the length of time the logs need to be kept.

Answers

Keeping accurate and complete inventory records of controlled substances is of utmost importance for several reasons.

What are controlled substances?

A controlled substance is usually a drug or a chemical whose possession, manufacture, usage is controlled or regulated by the government. They include opioids, stimulants, anabolic steroids, depressants, etc.

Importance of  keeping inventory records of controlled substance:

This is to prevent theft, misuse, or loss of this substance which could pose a significant risk to public health and safety.It also helps to ensure that these substances are used appropriately and efficiently. This information can help is knowing the trends and patters in usage and making informed decisions about ordering and stocking.The importance of reconciling the log is also critical, as it involves comparing the recorded inventory in the log and the actual physical count of the controlled substances to ensure that they match.

In conclusion, keeping an accurate and complete inventory record is critical for regulatory compliance, efficient use and risk management.

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Describe how individual learning styles affect the degree to which a learner can understand or perform educational activities.

Answers

Answer:

Finding out a student's learning style reveals details about their particular preferences. Understanding learning styles can make it simpler to construct, alter, and create curricula and educational programs that are more effective. Learning styles influence learning outcomes through learning motivation, therefore pupils with a visual learning style and strong learning drive would perform better academically than those with auditory and kinesthetic learning preferences. The level to which a student can comprehend or complete educational tasks depends on their particular learning styles. Some students learn better via seeing, hearing, or feeling because they are more visual, auditory, or kinesthetic.

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