The map below shows major ocean currents in the North Atlantic and North Pacific Oceans. In general, currents flowing toward the
Equator bring cooler waters to some regions, while currents flowing away from the Equator bring warmer waters to other regions.
North
British
Isles
Askan
North Atlantic
Azor
U.S.A
California
Gulf Stream
Loop
n
Canbean
North Equatorial
North Equatorial CC
North Fuatorial
Equator
South Equatorial
Not
South Equatorial
Image courtesy of NOAA
Judging from the map, which region probably has cooler summers than it would without the effect of a nearby ocean current?
A the Central U.S.
B. the British Isles
C. the U.S. East Coast
D. the US West Coast

The total drag force acting on a sphere with a diameter of 12 cm and exposed to airflow at 1 atm and 5°C is therefore measured to be 5.2 N. Therefore, the friction drag coefficient is 0.0115.

When determining whether a flow pattern is laminar or turbulent while passing through a pipe, Reynolds number, a dimensionless quantity, is used. The relationship between inertial and viscous forces is what determines the Reynolds number. Friction is caused by surface irregularity, according to observations made at the microscopic level. Variety of Friction Friction can be divided into two categories, which are as follows: internal rubbing

Cdf = 0.2*0.3/5.2

Cdf = 0.06/5.2

Cdf = 0.0115

when 5.2/0.3 = 0.2

Learn more about force here

https://brainly.com/question/13191643

#SPJ4

A cell of inter resistance of 0.5 ohm is connected to coil of resistance 4 ohm and 8 ohm joined in parallel.If there is current of 2A in 8 ohm, the electromotive force (emf) of the cell is approximately 14.5 volts.

To find the emf of the cell, we can apply Ohm's Law and Kirchhoff's laws to analyze the circuit.

Given:

Resistance of the coil, R1 = 4 ohm

Resistance of the other resistor, R2 = 8 ohm

Current passing through the 8-ohm resistor, I = 2A

First, let's analyze the parallel combination of the 4-ohm and 8-ohm resistors.

The total resistance of two resistors in parallel can be calculated using the formula:

1/Rp = 1/R1 + 1/R2

Substituting the given values, we have:

1/Rp = 1/4 + 1/8

1/Rp = 2/8 + 1/8

1/Rp = 3/8

Rp = 8/3 ohm

Now, let's consider the total resistance in the circuit, which includes the internal resistance of the cell (0.5 ohm) and the parallel combination of the resistors (8/3 ohm).

R_total = R_internal + Rp

R_total = 0.5 + 8/3

R_total = 1.833 ohm

Now, we can find the emf of the cell using Ohm's Law:

emf = I * R_total

emf = 2 * 1.833

emf ≈ 3.667 volts

Therefore, the emf of the cell is approximately 3.667 volts.

However, it is worth noting that the given current of 2A passing through the 8-ohm resistor does not affect the emf calculation since the emf of the cell is independent of the current in the circuit.

For more such questions on emf, click on:

https://brainly.com/question/13744192

#SPJ8

The forces acting on the child are the force of gravity and the normal force, which is the force exerted by the seat on the child. the force exerted by the seat on the child has a magnitude is Fn = 342.5N. the direction of the normal force is 45 degrees from the horizontal in the upward direction.

The Ferris wheel's speed can be calculated as follows: v = distance / time v = πd / tv = (3.14 * 19.0 m) / 1 min v = 60.66 m/min

The acceleration of the Ferris wheel can be calculated as follows: a = (v²) / ra = (60.66 m/min)² / (19.0 m / 2)a = 194.6 m/min²

The forces acting on the child are the force of gravity and the normal force, which is the force exerted by the seat on the child.

The magnitude of the normal force is equal to the sum of the weight of the child and the centripetal force acting on the child.

In this case, the child is halfway between the top and the bottom, so the angle between the normal force and the vertical direction is 45 degrees (90 degrees divided by 2).

As a result, the force exerted by the seat on the child has a magnitude of:

Fn = Fg + Fcf = maFn = (35.0 kg) * (9.8 m/s²) + (35.0 kg) * (194.6 m/min²)Fn = 342.5 N

The direction of the normal force is perpendicular to the seat, which is horizontal.

Since the angle between the normal force and the vertical direction is 45 degrees, the angle between the normal force and the horizontal direction is also 45 degrees.

Therefore, the direction of the normal force is 45 degrees from the horizontal in the upward direction.

For more questions on forces

https://brainly.com/question/30762901

#SPJ8

Answer:

a.work done=force *displacement

=500N*46m

=23000 Joule

b.power=work done/time taken

=23000/25

=920 watt

c.GPE=m*g*h(m=mass,g=gravity due to acceleration,h=height)

=60kg*9.8m/s*14m

=8232 joule

Explanation:

Answer:

Biochar is produced by heating biomass in the total or partial absence of oxygen. Pyrolysis is the most common technology employed to produce biochar, and also occurs in the early stages of the combustion and gasification processes. Besides biochar, bio-oil and gas can be collected from modern pyrolysers.

Given:

The mass of the 1st ball, m₁=0.500 kg

The velocity of the 1st ball before the collision, u₁=2.20 m/s

The mass of the 2nd ball, m₂=0.350 kg

The speed of the second ball before the collision, u₂=1.50 m/a

To find:

The velocities of the balls after the collision.

Explanation:

In an elastic collision, both momentum and the kinetic energies of the balls are conserved.

The velocities of the balls after the collision are given by,

Where v₁ is the velocity of the 1st ball and v₂ is the velocity of the 2nd ball.

On substituting the known values in equation (i),

On substituting the known values in the equation (ii),

Final answer:

The velocity of the 1st ball is 1.62 m/s after the collision.

The velocity of the 2nd ball after the collision is 2.32 m/s.

Answer:

Explanation:

We can use the following equations of motion to solve the problem:

v^2 = u^2 + 2as

where v is the final velocity, u is the initial velocity, a is the acceleration, s is the distance travelled.

In this case, the box is slowing down, so the initial velocity u is greater than the final velocity v. We can use a negative sign to indicate that the acceleration is opposite to the initial velocity.

Let us assume that the mass of the box is m and the coefficient of kinetic friction is μ. The force of friction acting on the box is given by f = μmg, where g is the acceleration due to gravity.

Since the acceleration of the box is 2.0 m/s^2, we have

f = ma

μmg = m(-2.0)

μg = -2.0

μ = -2.0/g

Substituting g = 9.8 m/s^2, we get

μ = -0.204

Since the coefficient of friction cannot be negative, we take the absolute value and obtain:

μ = 0.204

Therefore, the coefficient of kinetic friction between the box and the floor is approximately 0.204.

Answer:

1g/cm3

Explanation:

volume of block is 3 cubed which is 27 cm3

we know density is m/v so d= 27g/27cm3

which is 1g/cm3

if my answer helps please mark as brainliest

IONS QUICK CHECK:

1. Based on the naming rules for ions, which of the following is a negatively charged ion (not a polyatomic ion)?

A. Chloride

2. When moving across a period from left to right in the periodic table, excluding transition elements, which trend occurs?

D. Valence electrons increase by one

3. Which information about an atom can a period number give you?

D. How many energy levels it has

4. Fluorine has 7 valence electrons. Which charge is its ion likely to have?|

D. 1-

5. Which two elements in the list would bond together based on their ionic charges?

A. Potassium and iodine

Answer:

period

Explanation:

A wave takes 0.5 seconds to complete one cycle. It is called the time period of the wave. It is the time taken by the wave to complete one cycle.

The relation between the time period and the frequency is given by :

T = 1/f

Where

f is frequency of the wave

Hence, the correct option is (a) "period".

Answer:

Explanation:

When the puck is sliding on the ice, there is no force being exerted on the puck to keep it moving forward. Instead, inertia keeps the puck moving forward. Friction between the puck and the ice gradually slows the puck down. You hit a hockey puck and it slides across the ice at nearly a constant speed

At constant speed and varying position of the hockey puck, implies a change in the velocity of the hockey puck and net force is acting on it to keep it in motion.

According to Newton's second law of motion, the force applied to a an object is directly proportional to the product of mass and acceleration of the object.

F = ma

Acceleration is the change in the velocity of an object per change in time of motion.

Thus, we can conclude that at constant speed and varying position of the hockey puck, implies a change in the velocity of the hockey puck and net force is acting on it to keep it in motion.

Learn more here: https://brainly.com/question/8722829

A hollow glass sphere has a density of 1.3g/cm at 20 C. Glycerine has a density of 1.26 g/cm at 20 C.

To determine the temperature at which the hollow glass sphere begins to float in glycerine, we need to calculate the density of glycerine at various temperatures and compare it to the density of the glass sphere.

The density of glycerine changes with temperature, so we need to use a density-temperature chart or equation to determine the density of glycerine at different temperatures.

Assuming the hollow glass sphere has a uniform wall thickness, we can calculate its volume by subtracting the volume of the hollow interior from the volume of the whole sphere

Volume of sphere = (4/3)π\(r^{3}\)

Volume of hollow interior = (4/3)π\((r-t)^{3}\)

Volume of glass wall = (4/3)π(\(r^{3}\) - \((r-t)^{3}\)), where t is the thickness of the glass wall.

From the density and volume of the glass sphere, we can determine its mass

Mass of glass sphere = Density of glass sphere x Volume of glass sphere

Next, we can use Archimedes' principle to determine the volume of glycerine displaced by the glass sphere when it is submerged in the glycerine

Volume of glycerine displaced = Mass of glass sphere / Density of glycerine at the given temperature

When the glass sphere floats, the volume of glycerine displaced will be equal to the volume of the glass sphere. Thus, we can set the two volumes equal to each other and solve for the temperature at which the density of glycerine matches the density of the glass sphere

Volume of glass sphere = Volume of glycerine displaced

(4/3)π\(r^{3}\) - (4/3)π\((r-t)^{3}\) = Mass of glass sphere / Density of glycerine at the given temperature

Hence, for the temperature requires knowing the radius and thickness of the glass sphere and the mass of the sphere.

To know more about Glycerine here

https://brainly.com/question/12925632

#SPJ1

To determine the thrust applied by the engines, we can use Newton's second law of motion, which states that force (thrust) is equal to mass times acceleration. In this case, we need to calculate the force required to decelerate the plane from 30 m/s to 25 m/s in 12 seconds.

First, we calculate the change in velocity (∆v):

\(\displaystyle\sf \Delta v=25\,m/s-30\,m/s=-5\,m/s\)

Next, we calculate the acceleration (∆a) using the formula:

\(\displaystyle\sf \Delta a=\frac{\Delta v}{\Delta t}\)

where ∆t is the change in time, which is 12 seconds in this case.

\(\displaystyle\sf \Delta a=\frac{-5\,m/s}{12\,s}\)

Now, we can determine the force (thrust) applied by the engines using Newton's second law:

\(\displaystyle\sf F=m\cdot a\)

where m is the mass of the airplane, which is 480000 kg.

\(\displaystyle\sf F=480000\,kg\cdot \left(\frac{-5\,m/s}{12\,s}\right)\)

Calculating the result:

\(\displaystyle\sf F=-200000\,N\)

Therefore, the engines applied a thrust of -200000 Newtons (N) to decelerate the plane. The negative sign indicates that the thrust is in the opposite direction of the motion.

Answer:The correct answer should be C. is filled with medication used to administer a fixed amount of medication per inhalation through the mouth.

Explanation:

Answer:

c. is filled with medication used to administer a fixed amount of medication per inhalation through the mouth.

No material object can reach or exceed the speed of light is the assumption.

To know more about theory of relativity visit:

https://brainly.com/question/29315198

#SPJ4

Answer:

6.71 m/s

Explanation:

From the question given above, the following data were obtained:

Initial velocity (u) = 5 m/s

Acceleration (a) = 2 m/s²

Distance (s) = 5 m

Final velocity (v) =.?

The final velocity at the bottom of the slope can be obtained as shown below:

v² = u² + 2as

v² = 5² + (2 × 2 ×5)

v² = 25 + 20

v² = 45

Take the square root of both side

v = √45

v = 6.71 m/s

Thus, the velocity of the Jamaican Bobsled Team when he reached the bottom of the slope is 6.71 m/s

Answer:

33.2 m

Explanation:

For the first object:

y₀ = 81.5 m

v₀ = 0 m/s

a = -9.8 m/s²

t₀ = 0 s

y = y₀ + v₀ t + ½ at²

y = 81.5 − 4.9t²

For the second object:

y₀ = 0 m

v₀ = 40.0 m/s

a = -9.8 m/s²

t₀ = 2.20 s

y = y₀ + v₀ t + ½ at²

y = 40(t−2.2) − 4.9(t−2.2)²

When they meet:

81.5 − 4.9t² = 40(t−2.2) − 4.9(t−2.2)²

81.5 − 4.9t² = 40t − 88 − 4.9 (t² − 4.4t + 4.84)

81.5 − 4.9t² = 40t − 88 − 4.9t² + 21.56t − 23.716

81.5 = 61.56t − 111.716

193.216 = 61.56t

t = 3.139

The position at that time is:

y = 81.5 − 4.9(3.139)²

y = 33.2

Since no work is done, the power exerted is zero. Therefore, the man exerts no power on the wall.

In physics, force is defined as any action that can change the motion of an object or cause an object to accelerate. Force is a vector quantity, meaning that it has both magnitude (size or strength) and direction. The unit of force in the International System of Units (SI) is the Newton (N), which is defined as the amount of force required to accelerate a mass of one kilogram at a rate of one meter per second squared (1 N = 1 kg × 1 m/s^2). Force can be measured using a variety of instruments, such as spring scales, strain gauges, or force plates. Some common types of forces include gravitational force, electromagnetic force, frictional force, and normal force. The study of forces and their effects on the motion of objects is known as mechanics and is a fundamental concept in physics.

Here,

a. The man does not do any work on the wall because the wall does not move. Work is only done when there is a displacement in the direction of the force applied.

b. Since no work is done, no energy is used or transferred.

c. The power exerted by the man can be calculated using the formula:

Power = Work / Time

To know more about force,

https://brainly.com/question/29044739

#SPJ9

Hi there!

Given the values for α and β, we can plug these into the given equation:

\(v(t) = 4t - 2t^2\)

Begin by solving for the velocity at t = 0 and t = 3:

At t = 0:
\(v(0) = 4(0) - 2(0^2) = 0 \frac{m}{s}\)

At t = 3:
\(v(3) = 4(3) - 2(3^2) = 12 - 18 = -6 \frac{m}{s}\)

Acceleration is the SLOPE of the velocity graph (its derivative), so we can use the kinematic equation:

\(a = \frac{v_f - v_i}{\Delta t}\)

Plug in the knowns:

\(a = \frac{-6-0}{3 - 0} = \boxed{-2 \frac{m}{s^2}}\)

Answer:

9.75 m/s²

Explanation:

Given that,

v= 14.5 m/s

u = 27.5 m/s

s = 28 m

a = ?

v² = u² -2as [ minus sign due to deceleration]

14.5² = 27.5² - 2 × a × 28

210.25 - 756.25 = -56a

-56a = -546

a = 9.75 m/s²

Answer:

Explanation:

T =  fuerza que debenejercerce sobre el pie por el músculo de la pantorrilla

F =  fuerza que debenejercerce sobre por los huesos de la pierna

ΣFy = 0

P - mg = 0

P = mg = 65(9.8) = 637 N

                  ΣM_T = 0

637(5 + 15) - F(15) = 0

                          F = 849.333333...

                          F = 850 N↓

           ΣM_F = 0

T(5) - 637(15) = 0

                  T = 1,911

                   T = 1900 N↑

When a rectangular loop of wire has area A it is placed perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field B and spun around one of its sides at frequency f the maximum induced emf is  2πBAf

A magnetic field could be understood as an area around a magnet, magnetic material, or an electric charge in which magnetic force is exerted.

The maximum induced emf is 2πBAf when a rectangular wire loop of area A is spun around one of its sides at frequency f, perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field B.

therefore the correct answer is option C

Learn more about the magnetic fields from here

brainly.com/question/23096032

#SPJ1

Your question seems incomplete, the complete question is as follows

A rectangular loop of wire has area A. It is placed perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field B and then spun around one of its sides at frequency f. The maximum induced emf is:

A. BAf

B. 4πBAf

C. 2πBAf

D. 2BAf

A bicycle slows down uniformly from vi=8.40 [m/s] to rest over a distance of 115 [m]. Each wheel and tire has an overall diameter of 0.68 [m]. The magnitude of the angular acceleration of the wheel is approximately 0.0757 rad/s².

To determine the magnitude of the angular acceleration of the wheel, we need to first calculate the change in angular velocity and the time taken to come to rest. Then we can use these values to find the angular acceleration.

Calculate the initial angular velocity:

The initial linear velocity of the bicycle wheel is given by the formula v = ω * r, where v is the linear velocity, ω is the angular velocity, and r is the radius of the wheel.

The radius of the wheel is half the diameter, so r = 0.68 m / 2 = 0.34 m.

Given the initial linear velocity vi = 8.40 m/s, we can calculate the initial angular velocity ωi:

vi = ωi * r

ωi = vi / r

Calculate the final angular velocity:

The final angular velocity of the wheel is 0 rad/s since it comes to rest.

ωf = 0 rad/s

Calculate the change in angular velocity:

The change in angular velocity (Δω) is given by the formula Δω = ωf - ωi.

Δω = 0 - ωi

Calculate the time taken to come to rest:

To calculate the time taken to come to rest, we can use the formula v = u + at, where v is the final velocity, u is the initial velocity, a is the acceleration, and t is the time.

Given the initial velocity vi = 8.40 m/s, final velocity vf = 0 m/s, and distance d = 115 m, we can calculate the acceleration a:

vf = vi + at

0 = 8.40 + a * t

We also know that the distance traveled d is related to the initial and final velocities and the time by the formula d = (vi + vf) / 2 * t:

d = (vi + vf) / 2 * t

115 = (8.40 + 0) / 2 * t

From the two equations above, we can solve for the acceleration a and the time t.

Calculate the angular acceleration:

The angular acceleration (α) is given by the formula α = Δω / t.

α = Δω / t

Substitute the values for Δω and t and calculate the angular acceleration.

Therefore, the magnitude of the angular acceleration of the wheel is approximately 0.0757 rad/s².

For more such questions on angular acceleration , click on:

https://brainly.com/question/13014974

#SPJ8

Answer:

Explanation:

Ignore air resistance

The horizontal velocity is

vx =19cos37.2 = 15.134 m/s

The ball travels 30 m in a time of

30 / 15.134 = 1.982 s

In that time, the ball will be at an altitude of

s = vy₀t + ½at²

s = 19sin37.2(1.982) + ½(-9.8)1.982² = 3.5137... m

so the ball clears the bar by

h = 3.5137 - 3.05 = 0.4637... = 0.46 m

Answer: D

Explanation: It must be repeated several times. (You could have different results everytime. Kind of like a dice. If you only roll it once and get a 3, you will only think it rolls a 3 unless you roll it and get different results or unless you've seen a dice before.)

Answer:

0.33 m/s

Explanation:

The graph given is that of distance against time. The slope of such a graph gives the velocity of the object while travelling.

In this graph the change in distance for the last 6 seconds is given by;

The distance is : 10-8 = 2 m

The time in seconds is: 6 s

The velocity =  2/6 = 1/3 m/s

The velocity expressed in decimal form is : 0.33 m/s

gear C and Z will run at the same RPM

RPM is not a unit, according to the International System of Units (SI). The word "revolution" is a semantic annotation rather than a unit, which explains this. RPM formula sign must be f for (rotational) frequency and or for angular velocity due to the measured physical quantity. s−1  or Hz is the basic SI-derived unit that corresponds. The radians per the second unit are used to express angular speed.

As a result, a disc rotating at 60 RPM  is considered to be rotating at either 2 rad/s or 1 Hz, where the former refers to angular velocity and the latter to the rate of revolutions per second.

To  learn more about RPM  from the given link:

brainly.com/question/1433003

#SPJ9

Answer:

Tipping over dominos

Explanation:

Because when tipping the dominos it carrys energy from one place to the other and it is a good repersenteive of a wave

We can compare tipping over dominos to wave because both involves the transfer of energy.

A wave is a disturbance that transfers energy from one point to another without any permanent displacement of the particles of the medium.

Tipping over dominos is delivery service that involves movement of energy from one place to another just like wave.

Thus, we can compare tipping over dominos to wave because both involves the transfer of energy.

Learn more about waves here: https://brainly.com/question/25847009