Action by the nurse is most appropriate s that the client if he's experienced any abdominal pain.
What do you mean by chronic back pain?Acute low back pain from an initial injury or other underlying cause that persists for 12 weeks or more is referred to be chronic low back pain. One year after experiencing acute low back pain, about 20% of sufferers experience chronic low back pain with ongoing symptoms. Even if pain persists, this does not always indicate that there is an obvious or treatable underlying medical condition. Chronic low back pain can sometimes be successfully treated, but in some situations, the pain persists even after receiving medical and surgical care.
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What is a core reason that students with dyslexia or adhd have not received the support they need?.
The core reason why students with dyslexia or ADHD have not received the support they need is the lack of resources. The educator in charge of these students must be more focused. One teacher can only take care of a very limited number of students, which means the number of teachers needed is high.
Dyslexia is a learning disability that causes people to experience difficulties with specific language skills, such as reading and writing. Depending on the severity, it can impact a person's ability in learning. ADHD is not a learning disability, but it can and does impact the learning process.
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A nurse has held a media event to publicize the need for funding for immunizations and lobbied decision makers by providing pertinent statistical information about the risks and benefits of immunizations. The nurse is known as a.
She is recognized as a nurse activist.
This activity falls under the activist act since the nurse organized a media event to raise awareness of the need for financing for vaccines and pressured decision-makers by giving relevant statistical data regarding the dangers and benefits of immunizations.
Some vaccinations result in transient headaches, exhaustion, or appetite loss. A youngster may, on rare occasions, suffer from a severe allergic response or a neurological adverse effect like a seizure.
The idea of nursing activism stems from the profession's ethical obligations & social contract with humankind. As opposed to advocacy or involvement, activism calls for the use of one's own, others, or perhaps one's political capital.
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The question is -
A nurse has held a media event to publicize the need for funding for immunizations and lobbied decision-makers by providing pertinent statistical information about the risks and benefits of immunizations. The nurse is known as an
a. nurse citizen.
b. nurse activist.
c. nurse politician.
d. nurse clinician.
Which is an accurate description of an in-service
training program?
Answer:
it is the development of skills, knowledge, and experience that will help you advance in your career
hope this helped
How many days after treatment can a patient receiving oxaliplatin develop symptoms of chronic peripheral neuropathy
You are a nurse in a treatment room; during the current cleaning, the disinfectant got into your eyes. Questions: Assess the situation. Your actions
Answer:
ok the first thing I would want to do is calmly assess the situation, if I can see I need to find the nearest sink and/or eyewash station and clean out as much of the chemicals as I can then if there is someone with me I will ask them to check the bottle for the poison control and call it if there is not I will find and call it myself
Match the phrase with the term.
When you're still breathing hard after you finish exercising, it's called EPOC
When you can't breathe in fast enough to get all the oxygen your muscles need, it's called
When you're breathing in all the oxygen your muscles need, it's called oxygen deficit
What is it that produces lactic acid?
No lactic acid is being produced or
Extra oxygen that helps get rid of th
NEXT QUESTION
steady state
EPOC
oxygen deficit
AM
lled
Red blood cells and muscle cells are the principal producers of lactic acid. When oxygen levels are low, it develops when the body metabolises carbohydrates for energy. Your body's oxygen level may become reduced at the following times: during a vigorous activity.
Which fungus is used to produce lactic acid?Rhizopus fungus can grow and ferment in simple media with a variety of carbon sources, including starch and cellulose, making it an ideal candidate for the manufacture of lactic acid, which serves as the structural component of polylactic acid, the base material for green plastic.
Even though the blood lactate content rises while exercising hard, the lactic acid molecule itself separates and is recycled to make additional ATP.
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A 56 year old woman with Left extremity weakness
A 56 year old woman with a past medical history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia presents with left extremity weakness.
The condition initially began in January with weakness in her left foot and ankle. This remained stable until motor vehicle accident in April. The patient was evaluated for whiplash injury.
Two to three weeks following the accident, the patient noticed that the weakness had progressed up the leg.
As of July, the patient had developed weakness of the left hand.
By October, the patient had started to use a walker and then a wheelchair to ambulate.
In December, the patient was unable to grasp objects with her left hand and presented with atrophy of the hand muscles
Review of Pertinent Symptoms
No bulbar symptoms
No sensory loss
No neck pain
No bowel/bladder dysfunction
Chronic lower back pain
Localize neurologic lesions
Cortex/subcortex
Brainstem
Spinal cord
Peripheral Nerve
neuromucular Junction
Muscle
Physical Exam
Mental status intact
Cranial nerves (CNS) Intact
Motor Function
Strength
Left upper extremity 3/5 strength, except 2/5 strength in the dorsal interossei
Left lower extremity 3+/5 strength to all muscle groups tested
Right upper extremity/right lower extremity 5/5 strength.
Bulk significant atrophy in the left hand
Reflexes 3+ throghout
Sensation: intact throughout
Fasciulations within the left arm in the multiple muscle groups and less frequently in the right arm
The patient has typical Combined UMN and LMN disease findings
Rule out Mimics
Creatine kinase: 53
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C- reactive protein WNL
Antinuclear antibodies: negative
Thyroid-stimulating hormone: 1:2
Serum protein electrophoresis without M spike
Free light chains WNL
Rapid plasma reagin RPR was Negative
Vitamin B12 level WNL (533 pg/mL)
Copper level WNL (119 mcg/dL)
Negative for Lyme disease test
Vitamin E WNL
Human Immunodeficiency virus HIV was negative
Electromyography (EMG) Nerve Conduction Velocity
Consistent with Motor neuron disease
Left median motor and ulnar motor responses revealed low amplitude
All sensory nerve studies were intact with normal values
Needle EMG showed abnormal spontaneous activity with obvious neurogenic pattern on activation in all four extremities
Diagnosis
Motor neuron disease
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
Based on the patient's clinical history, physical examination findings, and diagnostic tests, the most likely diagnosis for this 56-year-old woman with left extremity weakness is amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), also known as motor neuron disease.
What is ALS?ALS is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that affects the motor neurons in the brain and spinal cord, leading to weakness, atrophy, and fasciculations in the muscles. The patient's symptoms of weakness initially starting in the left foot and ankle, and then progressing up the leg and involving the left hand, along with the atrophy of hand muscles and abnormal findings on electromyography (EMG) and nerve conduction velocity testing, are consistent with the diagnosis of ALS.
Other potential mimics of motor neuron disease have been ruled out through laboratory tests and imaging studies, and the patient's clinical presentation is characteristic of combined upper motor neuron (UMN) and lower motor neuron (LMN) involvement, which is typical of ALS. Further evaluation and management should be done by a neurologist specializing in motor neuron diseases.
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cardiovascular system disorder questions with multiple choices
Answer:
You have to put the questions and their answers for people to be able to answer your questions.
Explanation:
19) What is a traveling Guide?
a) something that don't move
b) something that move
c) stay in between
d) In the back of the head
Answer:
d is the answer I think sry if it's worng
Which statement accurately reflects the guidelines for behavioral restraint and seclusion of adults?
A. Ensure continuous face-to-face observation for the first hour of restraint or seclusion.
B. Assess patient safety and well-being every 30 minutes after the first hour of restraint or seclusion.
C. Use a remote camera to avoid being in the same room as the patient during restraint or seclusion.
D. Expect the order to state, "Restrain as needed."
The standards for seclusion and behavioral constraint of adults. For the first hour of constraint or seclusion, make sure the subject is under constant face-to-face surveillance. (Option A)
What does it mean to be patient?Able to keep their cool and refrain from losing their temper when speaking with or waiting on difficult people. I hate standing in line for a long time. Simply put, I'm not a patient person. The instructor treated her students with kindness and patience.
What does patience mean to you?If you're patient, you might be able to manage setbacks better and enjoy life more. There is truth to the adage "Good things come to those who wait." Your ability to move forward and make better informed decisions, which typically leads to more performance, is enhanced by patience.
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The philadelphia chromosome results in leukemia because.
Answer:
see below
Explanation:
The Philadelphia chromosome forms when chromosome 9 and chromosome 22 break and exchange portions. This creates an abnormally chromosome 22 called the Philadelphia chromosome. The presence of the Philadelphia chromosome leads to the production of an abnormal protein called BCR-ABL1 which promotes the overgrowth of white blood cells in the bone marrow. This results in development of leukemia.
Who do you feel were important in the development of medicine? Explain why.
a preoperative client has received a dose of scopolamine as prescribed by the anesthesiologist. the nurse should assess the client for which anticipated side effect of this medication?
A preoperative client who has received a dose of may experience dry mouth as an anticipated side effect of the medication. The nurse should assess the client for this symptom.
Scopolamine, also known as hyoscine, is an anticholinergic drug commonly used in preoperative settings to reduce secretions and prevent postoperative nausea and vomiting. Anticholinergic medications work by blocking the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter responsible for various functions in the body, including stimulating salivary glands to produce saliva. As a result, a common side effect of scopolamine and other anticholinergic medications is dry mouth, also known as xerostomia.
In addition to dry mouth, other side effects of scopolamine may include dizziness, drowsiness, blurred vision, and constipation. While these side effects are generally mild and self-limiting, it is essential for the nurse to monitor the client for any signs of more severe or unusual reactions to the medication. Any concerns should be reported to the anesthesiologist or other members of the healthcare team to ensure the client's safety and comfort during the preoperative period.
In conclusion, when a preoperative client has been administered scopolamine, the nurse should assess them for anticipated side effects such as dry mouth to ensure their well-being and to address any potential complications.
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excessive bleeding caused by congenital lack of factor viii:
The excessive bleeding caused by congenital lack of factor VIII is known as Hemophilia A.
Hemophilia A is a genetic bleeding disorder characterized by a deficiency or absence of clotting factor VIII, a protein necessary for normal blood clotting. It is an X-linked recessive disorder, meaning it primarily affects males, while females are usually carriers of the gene. Due to the lack of factor VIII, individuals with Hemophilia A experience prolonged bleeding and are at risk of excessive bleeding following injuries or surgeries.
Common symptoms include easy bruising, joint pain and swelling, prolonged nosebleeds, and prolonged bleeding after tooth extraction or surgery. Treatment for Hemophilia A involves replacing the missing or deficient factor VIII through infusions of recombinant factor VIII or plasma-derived factor VIII concentrates.
The complete question is
What is the medical condition characterized by excessive bleeding that is caused by a congenital lack of factor VIII?
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Calculate how many grams of NaOH are required to make a 30% solution by using De-ionized water as the solvent
What type of burn does a patient have if blisters are present and the affected area is painful?A. First degree.B. Second degree.C. Third degree.D. Full thickness.
Answer:
B
Explanation:
it's B second degree
that is the correct answer
Answer:
B. Second degree
Explanation:
Second-degree burns involve the epidermis and part of the lower layer of skin, the dermis. The burn site looks red, blistered, and may be swollen and painful.
Hope it helped! :)
How do the circulatory and respiratory system work together to circulate blood and oxygen throughhout the body
Answer:
The circulatory and respiratory systems work together to circulate blood and oxygen throughout the body. Air moves in and out of the lungs through the trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles. Blood moves in and out of the lungs through the pulmonary arteries and veins that connect to the heart.
Explanation:
One way that HIV destroys key immune cells is by "___" viral particles, rupturing the cell wall.
A.) replicating
B.) budding
C.) transcribing
D.) cleaving
Which sentences make correct use of adverbs and adjectives? Select all that apply. Select one or more: a. Alma scored highest in the customer feedback table. b. Alma’s customers responded more enthusiastically than Tom’s. c. Tom’s sales pitch was received good. d. Tom was really pleased with his results.
The sentences that make correct use of adverbs and adjectives are as follows:option a ) Alma scored highest in the customer feedback table. option b) Alma’s customers responded more enthusiastically than Tom’s. option d) Tom was really pleased with his results.
The correct use of the adverbs and adjectives are as follows:The sentence “Alma scored highest in the customer feedback table” uses the adjective "highest" to describe Alma’s score. In this sentence, the adjective is modifying the noun "score".
The sentence “Alma’s customers responded more enthusiastically than Tom’s” uses the adverb "enthusiastically" to modify the verb "responded". The sentence compares Alma’s customer response with that of Tom’s.The sentence “Tom was really pleased with his results” uses the adverb "really" to modify the adjective "pleased".
The adverb "really" is used to intensify the meaning of the adjective "pleased". Hence the correct sentences are:A. Alma scored highest in the customer feedback table.B. Alma’s customers responded more enthusiastically than Tom’s.D. Tom was really pleased with his results.
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6. CPG 101 V2 includes a six-step planning process. These steps include all of the following EXCEPT:
The Consumer Products Good (CPG) 101 V2 is the FDA guideline that provides the basic requirements and best practices for good manufacturing practices (GMPs) for the manufacturing of human food, animal food, dietary supplements, and cosmetics.
These guidelines provide a reference for manufacturers to follow to ensure that their products meet the required quality standards and are safe for human consumption. The six-step planning process of CPG 101 V2 includes:
Step 1: Preliminary Steps
Step2: Scope
Step 3: Hazard Analysis
Step 4: Preventive Controls
Step 5: Verification
Step 6: Record-keeping and Documentation
The steps mentioned above outline the CPG 101 V2's planning process, which ensures the production of safe, high-quality food products.
The FDA requires all food manufacturers to implement these steps to ensure that the products are manufactured under suitable conditions, maintain quality, and are free from contaminants. However, the six-step planning process of CPG 101 V2 does not include identifying the location of the production facility. Although, manufacturers should ensure that the facility they choose meets the requirement of FDA's good manufacturing practice.
Therefore, the step excluded from the planning process is to identify the location of the production facility. The six-step planning process is a robust guide for manufacturers to produce safe food products that meet the quality standards.
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his abdomen is distended making him uncomfortable but he states that he has no pain in the area. he has a history of drinking more than six beers per day for many years. what further information would you need for a definitive diagnosis and why?
Only those who are at least 18 years old may purchase alcoholic beverages. The Licensing and Catering Act specifies this.
What is Alcohol?Only adults age 18 and older may purchase alcoholic drinks with a moderate alcohol level (less than 15%) and spirits (with an alcohol concentration of 15% or more).
Beverages with a maximum alcohol concentration of 0.5% and those free of alcohol may be sold to minors.
Any beverage that contains more than 0.5% alcohol at a temperature of 20 degrees Celsius is considered an alcoholic beverage according to the Licensing and Catering Act.
Therefore, Only those who are at least 18 years old may purchase alcoholic beverages. The Licensing and Catering Act specifies this.
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In a population of subjects who died from lung cancer following exposure to asbestos, it was found that the mean number of years elapsing between exposure and death was 25. The standard deviation was 7 years. Consider the sampling distribution of sample means based on samples of size 35 drawn from this population.
Required:
What will be the standard deviation of the sampling distribution?
Answer:
You have to use the formula: standard error = standard deviation / √(sample size).
This gives the answer which is approximate 1.18 years.
Ethical Principles From the case study provided: a) Identify the meaning of a fragility hip fracture and the impact this can have on an elderly person. b) Describe the specific situation in this case study. c) Using the Framework of Ethical Decision Making (Corey et al., 2014) d) Identify the problem or dilemma Describe the potential issues involved f) Review relevant ethics principles as they apply to this case (eg; informed consent, confidentiality, beneficence, etc. g) Consider possible and probable courses of action h) Describe the consequences of various decisions i) What is the best course of action? Provide a reflection of your learning with this case study. What did you learn? How will you apply this learning in the future? 1 Assignment #2 Ethical Principles From the case study provided: a) Identify the meaning of a fragility hip fracture and the impact this can have on an elderly person. b) Describe the specific situation in this case study. c) Using the Framework of Ethical Decision Making (Corey et al., 2014) d) Identify the problem or dilemma Describe the potential issues involved f) Review relevant ethics principles as they apply to this case (eg; informed consent, confidentiality, beneficence, etc. g) Consider possible and probable courses of action h) Describe the consequences of various decisions i) What is the best course of action? Provide a reflection of your learning with this case study. What did you learn? How will you apply this learning in the future?
a) A fragility hip fracture is a broken hip bone resulting from minimal trauma or a fall in the elderly person which leads to pain, mobility loss, and reduced independence.
b) The specific situation in the given case study involves an elderly individual experiencing a fragility hip fracture and being admitted to the hospital for treatment. The fracture caused severe pain, limited mobility, and required surgery. A person's independence and quality of life are severely compromised and require support and rehabilitation to restore function.
c) Using the Framework of Ethical Decision Making, the problem or dilemma is how to address the treatment and care of the elderly patient with a fragility hip fracture.
d) The potential issues involved in this scenario includes ensuring informed consent, maintaining patient confidentiality, promoting beneficence, and balancing autonomy with the patient's best interests.
f) Relevant ethics principles include informed consent, confidentiality, beneficence (doing good for the patient), and autonomy.
g) Possible courses of action may include surgical intervention, pain management, rehabilitation, and ensuring proper support and care for the patient.
h) Consequences of decisions can vary which includes successful recovery, complications, functional limitations, and impact on the patient's quality of life.
i) The best course of action depends on individual circumstances, but it may involve a comprehensive treatment plan that considers the patient's preferences, involves shared decision-making, and prioritizes their overall well-being.
Reflection: This case studies highlight the importance of considering ethical principles in medical decision-making, especially when dealing with vulnerable populations such as the elderly. It stresses the importance of informed consent, confidentiality and the promotion of the patient's best interests.
We learnt the significance of considering individual values and preferences, as well as involving the person and their support system in decision-making. In the future, we can apply this learning by ensuring a patient-centered approach, promoting open communication, and advocating for the well-being and autonomy of individuals in my healthcare practice.
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Which of the following is not a symptom of depression
Answer:
There are no answer choices or pictures...how am I supposed to answer this question?
Explanation:
Which of the following is a strategy to use to help an individual de-escalate from peak behaviors?
Get close to them and tell them to calm down quietly.
Keep your distance and loudly tell them to calm down.
Give them a task to complete immediately after peak behavior.
Allow time for the individual to become calmer.
Give the person some time to calm down. A person should use this technique to de-escalate from peak behaviours.
Which of the following is the most moral thing to do when you don't know how to help a client in trouble?When there is an emergency and the employee is unfamiliar with the client, appeasement is the best course of action.
Which behaviour management techniques were successful in encouraging students and controlling their behaviour?Rewarding good behaviour, including finishing homework, paying attention in class, and being considerate of others, is another way teachers can control their students' behaviour. Youngsters respond favourably to praise and learn to behave in a similar manner.
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What is meant by drawing a client in, and why is it so important for the client adopting a healthy lifestyle? What are the dangers of failing to draw the client in?
A healthy lifestyle is important in order to live a longer and disease free life.
Why is it important for adopting a healthy lifestyle?It is so important for the client adopting a healthy lifestyle because a healthy lifestyle increases the life duration of an individual as well as less susceptible to diseases. If a person do not adopt a healthy lifestyle, the person will suffer from a large number of diseases.
So we can conclude that a healthy lifestyle is important in order to live a longer and disease free life.
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in order to visualize the fine structure of viruses and cytoskeletal filaments at10–25 nanometers in diameter the type of microscopy thatwould be most effective is
To visualize the fine structure of viruses and cytoskeletal filaments at a scale of 10-25 nanometers in diameter, the most effective type of microscopy would be electron microscopy, specifically transmission electron microscopy (TEM).
Transmission electron microscopy uses a beam of electrons to pass through the specimen, and the resulting image is formed by the interaction of electrons with the sample. It offers high resolution and is capable of visualizing structures at the nanoscale level.
With TEM, viruses and cytoskeletal filaments can be directly visualized due to the high resolving power of electron microscopy. This technique allows for the observation of the intricate details of these structures, providing valuable insights into their morphology, organization, and interactions.
It's worth noting that cryo-electron microscopy (cryo-EM) is a specialized form of TEM that has become increasingly popular for studying biological samples.
Cryo-EM involves freezing the specimens in a thin layer of vitrified ice, which helps preserve their natural state. This technique has revolutionized the field of structural biology and has been instrumental in determining high-resolution structures of viruses and cytoskeletal components.
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Que funciones realiza el sistema circulatorio?
Answer:
El sistema circulatorio entrega oxígeno y nutrientes a las células y elimina los desechos. El corazón bombea sangre oxigenada y desoxigenada por diferentes lados. Los tipos de vasos sanguíneos incluyen arterias, capilares y venas. :)
Which of the following is NOT included as an objective in a Psychological Health and Safety management system? Multiple Choice: a. Identification of psychological hazards b. Promotion of psychological health. c. Control of risks that cannot be eliminated d. Recognition and reward.
Among the following choices, the objective that is NOT included in a Psychological Health and Safety management system is Recognition and reward. Thus, the correct answer is Option D.
Psychological Health and Safety refer to the idea of taking a strategic and systematic approach to address employees' mental health issues, concerns, and well-being. Psychological Health and Safety Management System (PHSMS) is a set of practices that helps organizations to develop policies and practices to provide a safe and healthy work environment.
The following are the objectives of a Psychological Health and Safety management system:
Identification of psychological hazards: A PHSMS aims to identify and assess all the psychological hazards that employees may face in the workplace, such as workplace stress, harassment, etc.Promotion of psychological health: The promotion of mental health in the workplace includes raising awareness of mental health issues, providing support, and offering training to employees to manage stress and cope with workplace challenges.Control of risks that cannot be eliminated: PHSMS aims to prevent harm to employees' mental health by taking all necessary measures to control the risks that cannot be eliminated.Recognition and reward: Though it's a crucial element, recognition and reward is not considered an objective of PHSMS. Instead, it is part of a broader effort to promote psychological health and well-being in the workplace.Learn more about Psychological Health from the given link:
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9.Choose the correct statement about mycobacterium tuberculosis:
A. It is spread by sexual transmission
B. The reservoirs are humans and animals
C. Disseminated disease mostly occurs in immunocompetent patients
D. Primary infection is pulmonary
Answer:
D Primary infection is pulmonary
Explanation: