Please solve the problem in the image!!!!!

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: It's C.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:8

Step-by-step explanation: Mode is the value or values in the data set that occurs most frequently.

the number of fruit snacks in the bag is at least 18. Since each of the 3 people received no fewer than 6 fruit snacks, there must have been at least 18 fruit snacks in the bag for them to share equally.

Inequalities specify the connection between two values that are not equal. Equal does not imply inequality. Typically, we use the "not equal symbol (≠)" to indicate that two values are not equivalent. But various inequalities are used to compare the numbers and determine whether they are less than or greater than. Inequalities are the name given to these algebraic mathematical expressions.

Step-by-step explanation:

The inequality x  divided by 3 ≥ 6 can be rewritten as x/3>=6, where x  is the total number of fruit snacks in the bag.

To solve for x, we can multiply both sides of the inequality by 3 to isolate: x/3>=6x>=3*6x>=18

Therefore, the number of fruit snacks in the bag is at least 18. Since each of the 3 people received no fewer than 6 fruit snacks, there must have been at least 18 fruit snacks in the bag for them to share equally.

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ANSWER:

the answer is

Answer:

3.5

Step-by-step explanation:

24=0=2×3×2×7

24=6×14=0

24=84 =0

24÷84=3.5

Anthony and Cleopatra were lying dead on the floor in a villa because they were fishes in the water bowl that might have fallen and broke down.

Since, there was a broken bowl nearby the dead bodies,

it seems like Anthony and Cleopatra were fishes who were in the water in the bowl that broke down.

Since the bowl in which the fishes were, broke down, the water of the bowl spilled and the fishes were no more in water due to which they died. This is the because there was no mark on their body and were neither poisoned.

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The shape of the cross section is a triangle. It is always triangle if the triangular pyramid sliced from any side perpendicularly to its base. See the picture in the attachment!

A pyramid is a polyhedron that has one base and lateral faces with the vertex at the top of the pyramid. The shape of lateral faces is always a triangle. While, the shape of the base varies and is used to name the pyramid.

A triangular pyramid is a pyramid with a triangular base. It has three lateral faces.

If a triangular pyramid is sliced by a plane from any side that is perpendicular to its base, the cross section formed will be a triangle. One line is at the base and two lines are at the lateral faces. See the picture in the attachment!

Hence, the cross section formed by the slicing is a triangle.

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The chord length (C) between PC and P is 5.831 cm.

A chord is a straight-line segment that connects two points on a circle. P is a point on the circumference of the circle, while PC is a chord of the circle that passes through P.

Therefore, the chord length (C) between PC and P is equal to half of the length of the chord PC. In other words, we need to find the length of PC and divide it by 2. We can do this using the Pythagorean Theorem since we have a right triangle formed by PC and the diameter of the circle.

Diameter of the circle (AB) = 20 cm

Radius of the circle (OA) = AB/2 = 10 cm

Height of the triangle (OP) = 6 cm

Using the Pythagorean Theorem, we can find the length of PC as follows:

PC² = PO² + OC²PC² = 10² + 6²PC² = 136PC = √136PC ≈ 11.661

Therefore,  is equal to C = PC/2C = 11.661/2C ≈ 5.831 cm.

So, the answer to the question "What is the chord length (C) between PC and P? when the diameter of the circle = 20 cm and the Height of the triangle = 6cm" is 5.831 cm.

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72 is the lcm because a LCM means The Least Common Multiple

Answer: -7/3

Step-by-step explanation:

Perpendicular lines have slopes that are negative reciprocals of each other.

Answer:

3ft to 1ft

Step-by-step explanation:

24/8=3 and 8/8=1

Answer:

21 to 6 or 21:6

Step-by-step explanation:

This is because soldiers come first then nut crackers

Given the following information: Five years ago, someone used her $40,000 saving to make a down payment for a townhouse in RTP. The house is a three-bedroom townhouse and sold for $200,000 when she bought it. After paying down payment, she financed the house by borrowing a 30-year mortgage.

Mortgage interest rate is 4.25%. Right after closing, she rent out the house for $1,800 per month. In addition to mortgage payment and rent revenue, she listed the following information so as to figure out investment return: 1. HOA fee is $75 per month and due at end of each year 2. Property tax and insurance together are 3% of house value 3. She has to pay 10% of rent revenue for an agent who manages her renting regularly 4. Her personal income tax rate is 20%. While rent revenue is taxable, the mortgage interest is tax deductible. She has to make the mortgage amortization table to figure out how much interest she paid each year 5. In the last five years, the market value of the house has increased by 4.8% per year 6.

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Answer:

64x

Step-by-step explanation:

Hello!

Using the exponent rule \(\frac{a^b}{a^c} = a^{b - c}\), we can simplify the fraction.

The simplified expression is 64x.

Answer:

Answer is B \((x-4)(x+4)\)

Step-by-step explanation:

By expanding the expression:

\((x-4)(x+4)\\x^2-4x+4x-16\\x^2-16\)

Answer: The police are hurting us and I’m starting to think that protastin ani’t going to do the trick we need to give a little more time but if they keep killing us soon we will have to fight fire with fire instead of fire with protesting never thought it would have to come to it but Mabey I’m not going to hurt anybody I’m going to heaven I’m not going to hell with these cops but that’s what I have to say

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

  ∠ABD = 19.5°

  ∠ABE = 160.5°

Step-by-step explanation:

Given angle ABC = 39° and its bisector BD, you want the measures of angle ABD and ABE, its supplement.

An angle bisector divides an angle into two equal parts, each with half the measure of the whole.

  ∠ABD = 1/2∠ABC

  ∠ABD = 1/2(39°)

  ∠ABD = 19.5°

The angles of a linear pair are supplementary: they total 180°. Angles ABD and ABE form a linear pair.

  ∠ABE = 180° -∠ABD

  ∠ABE = 180° -19.5°

  ∠ABE = 160.5°

Answer:

-15

Step-by-step explanation:

The 2-, 10-, and 100-year peak floods for a normal distribution are 5500 cfs.

Given a mean and standard deviation of 3,500 and 2,000 cfs, respectively, the 2-, 10-, and 100-year peak floods for a normal distribution can be found as follows:

Formula used in finding the peak flood is as follows:

Q_T= Q_m + K_T

σ

Where Q_T is the flow for a given period,

Q_m is the mean flow, K_T is the coefficient of skewness, and σ is the standard deviation of the flows.

For a normal distribution, K_T= frac{\text{duration of period in years}-1}{2}\times\frac{\text{duration of period in years}+1}{2}

Substitute the mean and standard deviation to the formula above:

When the period of interest is 2 years, the coefficient of skewness is calculated below:

[{{K}_{T}}=\frac{\text{(2-1)(2+1)}}{2}=1\]

Also, K_{T} is 1 for the 10-year and 100-year flood.

When these values are computed, we get the following values:

Q_{2}=3500+1(2000)=5500 \text{ cfs}

Q_{10}=3500+1(2000)=5500 \text{ cfs}

Q_{100}=3500+1(2000)=5500 \text{ cfs}

Therefore, the 2-, 10-, and 100-year peak floods for a normal distribution are 5500 cfs.

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Answer:

Liam ate more

Step-by-step explanation:

4/10 simplifies to 2/5

Therefore, Liam ate 1/5 more than Sam

Solution a needed 70 ounces and solution b needed 50 ounces

What does "1 ounce" mean?

One ounce weighs 437.5 grains or 28.349 grams and is a sixteenth of a pound (avoirdupois) of weight.

One ounce, abbreviated "oz," equals 480 grains, or 31.103 grams, and is one-twelfth of a Troy or Apothecaries' pound in weight. abbreviation for fluid ounce. a tiny amount or percentage.

So, let x=the of ounces of the 50% acid solution. The total volume after both are mixed is 100 ounces so the amount of the 20% solution will be 120-X. The equation will therefore be:

50% * x + 20% * (100-x) = 41% * 100

Dropping the ‘%’ we get

50x + 2000 - 20x = 4100

30x = 2100

x = 2100/30 = 70

Hence 70 ounces will be needed

Solution a = 70 ounces

Solution b = 50 ounces

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Answer:

−11y^3+7y2^+7y

Step-by-step explanation:

H0 says that the population means are equal.

In the context of a hypothesis test for the difference of means between two independent populations (x1 and x2), the null hypothesis (H0) states the following about the relationship between the two population means:
H0 says that the population means are equal.
In other words, the null hypothesis assumes that there is no significant difference between the means of the two populations. The alternative hypothesis would then state that the population means are different. Remember that hypothesis testing is a process to determine whether there is enough evidence to reject the null hypothesis in favor of the alternative hypothesis.

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Answer:

54 and 5

Step-by-step explanation:

56-2 is 54

7-5 is 2

have a good day my little friend learning his 1st addition

Answer:

See below.

Step-by-step explanation:

1.) False - It contains 6 sig figs, not 2.

2.) False - It goes up to 2 decimal places, not 3.

3.) True

4.) False - It goes up to 1 sig fig, not 4.

If the original measurements are repeated, there is a 95.4% chance that the new values will fall within 2 standard deviations of the given mean value.

The given value of 461.17 /- 0.31 mA represents a range of values that are within two standard deviations of the mean. Since the standard deviation is assumed to be the 2-sigma, this means that the range of values is equal to the mean value plus or minus two times the standard deviation. In other words, the range of values is from 460.55 mA to 461.79 mA.

If the original measurements are repeated, we can assume that the new values will follow a normal distribution with the same mean and standard deviation as the original measurements. Since 95.4% of the data falls within two standard deviations of the mean on either side, we can say that there is a 95.4% chance that the new values will fall within the range of 460.55 mA to 461.79 mA.

Therefore, we can conclude that if the original measurements are repeated, there is a 95.4% chance that the new values will fall within 2 standard deviations of the given mean value.

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\(f(x)=\frac{1}{9}x-2\\ take:\\x=f(x)^{-1}\\\\f(x)=X\\\\X=\frac{1}{9}f(x)^{-1}-2\\\\(X+2)9 =f(x)^{-1} \\\\f(x)^{-1}=9X+18\\\)

Answer:

22

Step-by-step explanation:

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The probability p that exactly two of the n people in the party will have the same birthday is given by the expression:

\($p=1 - \frac{(365!)}{(365-n)!365^n\times(n-1)!}$\)

where n represents the number of people at a party, and the probability of each person having the same birthday is considered to be 1/365 for each person.

Let's see how to derive the above expression using the concept of probability.

If n is the total number of people at the party, then the probability that none of them have the same birthday is given by:

\($\frac{365}{365} \times \frac{364}{365} \times \frac{363}{365} \times ...\times\frac{(365-n+1)}{365}$\)

$= \frac{_{365}P_{n}}{365^n}$where $_{365}P_{n}$ \($= \frac{_{365}P_{n}}{365^n}$where $_{365}P_{n}$\) denotes the number of permutations of n distinct objects chosen from a set of 365 distinct objects.

Now, let's calculate the probability that at least two people will have the same birthday. We can do this by subtracting the probability that no two people have the same birthday from 1.

\($p = 1 - \frac{_{365}P_{n}}{365^n}$\)

Next, we can simplify this expression further by using the formula for n-1 objects to be distributed among r bins:

\($\frac{(n-1)!}{(r-1)!(n-r)!}$\\\)

In this case, we want to distribute n people into 365 bins (each representing a unique birthday). Since we only care about the case where exactly 2 people share the same birthday, we can choose the 2 people first in \($^nC_{2}$\) ways, and then distribute the remaining n-2 people into 365 bins in \($365^{n-2}$\) ways.

Therefore, the probability that exactly 2 people will have the same birthday is given by:

\($p = \ ^{n}C_{2} \times \frac{(365^{n-2})}{365^n}$\)

\($= \frac{n!}{2!(n-2)!} \times \frac{1}{365^2}$\)

\($= \frac{n(n-1)}{2} \times \frac{1}{365^2}$\)

Substituting this value in the previous expression, we get:

\($p = 1 - \frac{(365!)}{(365-n)!365^n\times(n-1)!}$\)

Therefore, the probability p that exactly two of the n people in the party will have the same birthday is given by:

\($p=1 - \frac{(365!)}{(365-n)!365^n\times(n-1)!}$\)

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Answer:

Is this a t or f?

Step-by-step explanation: