please help will give brainliest if can :)

Answer:

270

Step-by-step explanation:

Volume of rectangular prism = length x width x height

6 x 9 x 5= 270

The measure of the arc or angle is:

m∠NLM = 60 deg

From the given figure, line LN is the diameter. Thus, the measure of arc LN is 180° (semicircle).

Thus, we can say:

arc NM + arc ML = 180°

(3x + 21) + (8x + 16) =  180°

11x + 37 = 180

11x = 180 - 37

11x = 143

x = 143/11

x = 13

arc NM = 8x + 16

put x = 13:

arc NM = 8(13) + 16 = 120°

Recall that:

The measure of inscribed angle is half the measure of its intercepted arc. That is:

m∠NLM = 1/2 * 120°

m∠NLM = 60°

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Answer:

4/3

I just guessed I think it's right

Answer:

Project A :

NPV : $703,888.64

IRR : 44.882%

Project B:

NPV : $5,241.26

IRR : 49.662%

Project B is more profitable

Step-by-step explanation:

The NPV gives the difference between the present value of cash inflow and cash outflow over a certain period of time.

The Internal rate of return is the discount rate which makes the NPV of an investment 0. It is used to estimate the potential return on an investment. Investments with higher IRR are said to be better than those with lower IRR value.

Using the net present value, (NPV) Calculator, the NPV for project A is : $703,888.64

The IRR of project A is : 44.882%

The NPV for Project B is : $5,241.26

The Internal rate of return (IRR) : 49.662%

From the Internal rate of return value obtained, we can conclude that, project B is more profitable as it has a higher IRR than project A.

Answer: The awnser is 48

Step-by-step explanation: I took the quiz

6.03 Quiz: Use Theoretical Probability to Predict

It is expected to take 48 spins for a multiple of 5 to be spun 8 times.

Probability is defined as the possibility of an event being equal to the ratio of the number of favorable outcomes and the total number of outcomes.

Since there are 12 sectors, the probability of landing on a multiple of 5 is 2/12 or 1/6.

The probability of not landing on a multiple of 5 is 5/6.

We can use the geometric distribution formula to find the expected number of spins:

E(X) = 1/p, where p is the probability of success.

As per the question, the probability of success is 1/6.

Therefore, E(X) = 1/(1/6) = 6.

We need to spin a multiple of 5 8 times, so we multiply the expected number of spins by 8:

6 x 8 = 48.

Therefore, we can expect to spin a multiple of 5-8 times after 48 spins.

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Answer:

---------------------

Formula for area of a rectangle with dimensions l and w is:

Substitute 10 for l and 4 for w:

Answer:

9.6

Step-by-step explanation:

When it says find the mean, it basically means find the average. So we'll add the numbers and divide by the amount of numbers there are (7).

(4+16+4+13+4+7+4+15)/7 = 9.571

Round to the nearest tenth, 9.6.

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  (c)  4

Step-by-step explanation:

The domain of the function is ...

  -6 < x ≤ 4

Only values greater than -6 (not including -6) and less than or equal to 4 are in the domain. Of the choices listed, only 4 is in the domain.

Answer:

1/6 because 3 is one of the sides of the 6

The odds against rolling a 3 are 5:1 and the probability of rolling a 3 is 1/6

It is a branch of mathematics that deals with the occurrence of a random event.

There are five numbers (1, 2, 4, 5, 6) that are not 3, so the number of ways to roll a number that is not 3 is 5.

The total number of possible outcomes is 6, since there are six sides on the die.

Therefore, the odds against rolling a 3 are:

5:1

This can also be expressed as a probability by dividing the number of unfavorable outcomes by the total number of outcomes:

P(not rolling a 3) = 5/6

Alternatively, the probability of rolling a 3 is 1/6, so we can also say:

P(rolling a 3) = 1/6

And the probability of not rolling a 3 is:

P(not rolling a 3) = 1 - P(rolling a 3)

= 1 - 1/6

= 5/6

Hence, the odds against rolling a 3 are 5:1 and the probability of rolling a 3 is 1/6

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Answer:

He grosses by $730.8 each week

Step-by-step explanation:

Divide $38000 by 52*

To get 730.76

But you have to round to the nearest penny so u get 730.8

Hope this helps

Have a amazing day!

*Number of weeks in a year.

Jim did not buy any tickets (n_Jim = 0).

Larry bought 7 more tickets than Jim.

To determine the number of tickets Larry bought more than Jim, we need to find the values of n for Larry and Jim's ticket purchases.

For Larry:

Let's substitute C = $170 into the equation C = 24n + 2 and solve for n:

$170 = 24n + 2

Subtracting 2 from both sides:

$168 = 24n

Dividing both sides by 24:

n = 7

For Jim:

We can calculate the number of tickets Jim bought by subtracting 12 from Larry's number of tickets:

n_Jim = n_Larry - 12

n_Jim = 7 - 12

n_Jim = -5

Since we cannot have a negative number of tickets, we can conclude that Jim did not buy any tickets (n_Jim = 0).

To find the difference in the number of tickets bought, we subtract the number of tickets Jim bought from the number of tickets Larry bought:

n_difference = n_Larry - n_Jim

n_difference = 7 - 0

n_difference = 7

Therefore, Larry bought 7 more tickets than Jim.

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Question

The equation C=24n+2 represents the cost, C, in dollars, of buying n tickets to a play. J $170. How many more tickets did Larry buy than Jim? 12

Answer:

7

Step-by-step explanation:

9 - 2 = 7

7 + 9 = 16

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The solution of the integral by variable change is equal to (1 / 6) · √(2 · x + 3)³ - (3 / 2) · √(2 · x + 3).

In this problem we find the definition of an integral, whose solution must be found by variable change, that is, a kind of algebraic substitution. First, write the complete expression:

∫ [x / √(2 · x + 3)] dx

Second, use algebraic substitution to simplify the expression:

u = 2 · x + 3

x = (u - 3) / 2

dx = du / 2

(1 / 2) ∫  [(u - 3) / (2 · √u)] du

(1 / 4) ∫ [(u - 3) / √u] du

(1 / 4) ∫√u du - (3 / 4) ∫ du / √u

Third, solve the integral:

(1 / 6) · √u³ - (3 / 2) · √u

Fourth, revert the algebraic substitution:

(1 / 6) · √(2 · x + 3)³ - (3 / 2) · √(2 · x + 3)

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Answer:

160 students

Step-by-step explanation:

As, 80% of 200 students instruments are of brass

So 80% of 200

= 80/100 x 200 = 160

So 160 students

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

so first ur oging to add the five then the 6

Answer:

x < z is true

Answer:

x<z is true

Step-by-step explanation:

\(~~~~~~ \textit{Compound Interest Earned Amount} \\\\ A=P\left(1+\frac{r}{n}\right)^{nt} \quad \begin{cases} A=\textit{accumulated amount}\dotfill & \stackrel{ 48000+1200 }{\$ 49200}\\ P=\textit{original amount deposited}\dotfill &\$48000\\ r=rate\to r\%\to \frac{r}{100}\\ n= \begin{array}{llll} \textit{times it compounds per year}\\ \textit{annually, thus once} \end{array}\dotfill &1\\ t=years\dotfill &2.6 \end{cases}\)

\(49200 = 48000\left(1+\frac{ ~~ \frac{r}{100} ~~ }{1}\right)^{1\cdot 2.6} \implies \cfrac{49200}{48000}=\left( 1+\cfrac{r}{100} \right)^{2.6} \\\\\\ \cfrac{41}{40}=\left( \cfrac{100+r}{100} \right)^{2.6}\implies \sqrt[2.6]{\cfrac{41}{40}}=\cfrac{100+r}{100} \\\\\\ 100\sqrt[2.6]{\cfrac{41}{40}}=100+r\implies 100\sqrt[2.6]{\cfrac{41}{40}}-100=r\implies \stackrel{ \% }{0.95}\approx r\)

Answer:

  17.  C 60°

  18.  D 121°

Step-by-step explanation:

The external angle is half the difference of the intercepted arcs.

17. (161° -41°)/2 = 60°

__

18. (? -59°)/2 = 31°

  ? = 59° +2(31°) = 121°

External angle∠C of the given circle is 60°

The angle subtended by the arc VS  is 121°

External angle is half of the difference between angles subtended by arcs.

So in problem 17,

∠C = (161°-41°)/2 = 60°

In problem 18,

We got the external angle = 59°

Let us take the angle subtended by arc = x

so,

(x-59°)/2 = 31°

x = 121°

Therefore, External angle∠C of the given circle is 60°

The angle subtended by the arc VS  is 121°

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Step-by-step explanation:

Just multiply the two dimensions to get m^2  area

7.2 m * 11 m = 79.2 m^2

Answer:

83.8

Step-by-step explanation:

first you add the grades together: 75 + 87 + 90 + 88 + 79 = 419

then you divide by the amount of grades: 419 / 5 = 83.8

Answer:

x = \(10^{0}\)

Step-by-step explanation:

From Δ MPL given that; <P = \(90^{0}\), exterior angle to M = \(136^{0}\) and <L = \((4x+6)^{0}\).

In the triangle, the exterior angle is equal to the sum of the two adjacent interior angles. So that;

\(136^{0}\) = \(90^{0}\) + \((4x+6)^{0}\)

      = \(90^{0}\) + 4\(x^{0}\) + \(6^{0}\)

\(136^{0}\) = \(96^{0}\) + \(x^{0}\)

⇒      4\(x^{0}\) = \(136^{0}\) - \(96^{0}\)

        4\(x^{0}\)  = \(40^{0}\)

Divided both sides by 4 to have;

\(x^{0}\) = \(10^{0}\)

The value of x is \(10^{0}\).

Answer:

The correct answer is in fact 10 degrees.

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this helps!

Have a great day! :)

Answer:

7

Step-by-step explanation:

The cost of the carpet will be $2,335.5.

What is Multiplication?

To multiply means to add a number to itself a particular number of times. Multiplication can be viewed as a process of repeated addition.

Given that;

The dimensions of the carpet are;

⇒ 15 feet by 18 feet

Now,

The area of the carpet = 15 x 18

                                   = 279 feet²

                                   = 270 / 3 yards²

                                   = 90 yards²

Since, The carpet costs = $25.95 per square yard.

Hence, The carpet cost for 90 yards² = 90 x $25.95

                                                          = $2,335.5

Thus, The cost of the carpet will be $2,335.5.

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Answer: Let's denote the two unknown angles as x and y.

We know that the sum of the angles in any quadrilateral is 360°, so we can set up an equation using this fact:

235° + 40° + x + y = 360°

Simplifying this equation, we get:

x + y = 85° (equation 1)

We also know that the other two angles are in a ratio of 5:12. This means that:

x/y = 5/12

Multiplying both sides by y, we get:

x = (5/12)y (equation 2)

Now we can substitute equation 2 into equation 1 and solve for y:

(5/12)y + y = 85°

(17/12)y = 85°

y = (12/17) * 85°

y = 60°

Substituting y = 60° into equation 2, we can solve for x:

x = (5/12) * 60°

x = 25°

Therefore, the two angles that are in a ratio of 5:12 measure 25° and 60°, respectively.

Step-by-step explanation:

a) Rotate segment CD 180 degrees around point D.

Answer: x

Step-by-step explanation:

x

The answer is O Congruent supplementary angles each have a measure of 90 or –12 + 11 < –1; true.

This can be proven by using the following formula:

p: 60 seconds = 1 minute

q: Congruent supplementary angles each have a measure of 90.

r: –12 + 11 < –1

For p, we can use the formula to calculate the number of minutes:

60 seconds * 1 minute = 60 minutes.

Therefore, 60 seconds = 1 minute.

For q, we can use the formula to calculate the measure of each angle:

2x = 90

Therefore, each angle has a measure of 45°.

For r, we can use the formula to calculate the result of the operation:

–12 + 11 = –1

Therefore, –12 + 11 < –1 is true.

In conclusion, the compound statement “Congruent supplementary angles each have a measure of 90 or –12 + 11 < –1” is true.

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