nikki and dave both work as cleaners

Answer:

A ( 6 . -9 ) it's so easy . . .. ..

Answer:

The given function is an Absolute value function because its expression is contained within the absolute value symbol.

Explanation:

Given the function;

Recall that Absolute value functions are functions that contains it algebraic expression within the absolute value symbol.

Such as;

Therefore, the given function is an Absolute value function because its expression is contained within the absolute value symbol.

The amount of the investment at maturity is $2443.341

Compound interest is the interest on the initial principal plus the interest which has been accumulated.

Given,

Principal amount (P)=  $1500

Rate of interest(R)= 5% = 5/100 = 0.05%

Time(T)= 10 years

The formula for annual compound interest is as follows:

FV = P (1+ r/m)^mt

Where:

FV - the future value of the investment, in our calculator it is the final balance

P - the initial balance (the value of the investment)

r - the annual interest rate (in decimal)

m - the number of times the interest is compounded per year (compounding frequency)

t - the number of years the money is invested for

FV = 1500*(1+0.05/1)^(10*1) = 2443.341

The value of the investment after 10 years will be $2443.341.

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Answer:

47/8 or 5 7/8

Step-by-step explanation:

(11 3/4) /2 = 47/8 or 5 7/8

The division of  \(11\frac{3}{4}\)  by 2 is equal to fraction 47/8.

To divide the mixed number \(11\frac{3}{4}\) by 2:

we can convert the mixed number to an improper fraction and then perform the division.

\(11\frac{3}{4}\) can be expressed as the improper fraction:

\(11\frac{3}{4}\)  = (11 × 4 + 3) / 4 = 47/4

Now, we can divide 47/4 by 2:

(47/4) ÷ 2

= (47/4) × (1/2)

= (47 × 1) / (4 × 2)

= 47/8

Therefore, the division of  \(11\frac{3}{4}\)  by 2 is equal to  47/8.

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Answer:

That would be A!

Step-by-step explanation:

Please tell me if i made a mistake or misunderstood!

Answer:

Total amount reimbursed / Total daily budget ;

7 days

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the following :

Amount reimbursed = $1,750

Amount paid for food and lodging = $150/ day

Amount paid for gas = $100 / day

A) Equation to get the number of days on the trip:

Total amount reimbursed / Total daily budget

B.) Total daily budget = $(150 + 100) = $250/ day

Number of days :

(Total amount reimbursed / Total daily budget)

($1,750 / $250)

= 7 days

Answer:

x = 2

Step-by-step explanation:

First isolate the variable:

10x - 4 = 16

      +4   +4

10x = 20

Then get x by itself:

10x = 20

x = 20/10

x = 10

Answer:it would be the fourth one

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The graph increases.

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this helps!!

Answer: the graph increases

Step-by-step explanation: did test

Answer:

I think its Z (-5, 7)

Step-by-step explanation:

Here :)

The coordinates of Z is (7, -5).

Given that, Z'(5, -7) is the image of Z after a reflection in the line y=x.

We need to find the coordinates of Z.

When you reflect a point across the line y = x, the x-coordinate and y-coordinate change places. If you reflect over the line y = -x, the x-coordinate and y-coordinate change places and are negated (the signs are changed). the line y = x is the point (y, x). the line y = -x is the point (-y, -x).

So, the coordinates of Z become (7, -5).

Therefore, the coordinates of Z is (7, -5).

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

D

Therefore, the correct answer is b) right.

Based on the given side lengths of 9, 12, and 15, we can determine the type of triangle by applying the Pythagorean Theorem. The theorem states that in a right triangle, the square of the length of the hypotenuse is equal to the sum of the squares of the other two sides.

To check if the triangle is right, we need to find the square of each side length and determine if it satisfies the Pythagorean equation.

Let's calculate:

9^2 + 12^2 = 81 + 144 = 225
15^2 = 225

As we can see, 225 is equal to 225. This indicates that the given triangle satisfies the Pythagorean Theorem and is a right triangle.

Therefore, the correct answer is b) right.

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Answer:

b) right

Step-by-step explanation:

y = (-1/2)x - 7/2 is the equation of the given point and slope.

To graph the point (3, -5) and a line with a slope of -1/2, we can use the point-slope form of a linear equation.

The point-slope form of a linear equation is given by:

y - y1 = m(x - x1)

where (x1, y1) represents a point on the line, and m represents the slope.

Plugging in the values, we have:

y - (-5) = (-1/2)(x - 3)

Simplifying:

y + 5 = (-1/2)x + 3/2

Subtracting 5 from both sides:

y = (-1/2)x + 3/2 - 5

y = (-1/2)x - 7/2

Now we have the equation y = (-1/2)x - 7/2, which represents a line with a slope of -1/2 passing through the point (3, -5).

To graph the line, plot the point (3, -5) on the coordinate plane and then use the slope to find additional points. For every 2 units you move to the right, move 1 unit down to find other points. Connect the plotted points to draw the line.

The resulting graph will show the point (3, -5) and a line with a slope of -1/2.

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Answer: 1/9, 0.48, 0.6, 2/3, 5/6

Step-by-step explanation:

Order these numbers: 0.6 , 2/3 , 5/6 , 1/9 , 0.48

0.6 = 0.6

2/3 = 0.6666666....

5/6 = 0.8333333....

1/9 = 0.111111.....

0.48 = 0.48

In order, it will go 1/9, 0.48, 0.6, 2/3, 5/6

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

25

Step-by-step explanation:

An explicit formula for a,, the nth term of the sequence 27, 9, 3, .... is \(a_n=(27) \times\left(\frac{1}{3}\right)^{n-1}\).

What is Geometric Progression?

A geometric progression is a sequence in which every next term of the sequence is found by multiplying the previous term by a fixed ratio.

Any nth term of the sequence is found out the formula,

\($$a_n=a_1 \times r^{n-1}$$\)

where,

\($a_n$\) is the nth term,

\($a_1$\) is the first term,

r is the fixed common ratio.

Sequence, 27, 9, 3, 1 .

the first term, \($a_1=27$\),

As we can see from series 27,9,3, 1. the series is a geometric series And can be written as \($3^3, 3^2, 3^1, 3^0$\). therefore, will follow the formula of a geometric series.

\(a_n=a_1 \times r^{n-1} \text {, }\)

we know the value of r can be found using the formula,

\(r=\frac{a_n}{a_{n-1}}\)

taking \($\mathrm{n}=2$\),

\(r=\frac{a_2}{a_{2-1}}=\frac{a_2}{a_1}=\frac{9}{27}=\frac{1}{3}\)

Substituting the values in the formula of geometric progression we get,

\($$\begin{aligned}&a_n=a_1 \times r^{n-1} \\&a_n=27 \times \frac{1}{3}^{n-1} \\&a_n=(27) \times\left(\frac{1}{3}\right)^{n-1}\end{aligned}$$\)

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To determine the complex exponential Fourier series representation for each of the given signals, we can use the formula:

X(t) = ∑[n=-∞ to ∞] Cn * e^(jnω0*t)

where Cn represents the complex Fourier coefficients and ω0 is the fundamental frequency.

X(t) = cos(ωt):

The complex exponential Fourier series representation for X(t) = cos(ωt) is:

X(t) = C0 * e^(j0ω0t) + C1 * e^(j1ω0t) + C(-1) * e^(j*(-1)ω0t)

= C0 + C1 * e^(jω0t) + C(-1) * e^(-jω0t)

x(t) = -cos(0.5 * ωt):

The complex exponential Fourier series representation for x(t) = -cos(0.5 * ωt) is:

x(t) = C0 * e^(j0ω0t) + C0 * e^(j0ω0t) + C1 * e^(j1ω0t) + C(-1) * e^(j(-1)ω0t)

= C0 + C0 + C1 * e^(j0.5ω0t) + C(-1) * e^(-j0.5ω0t)

x(t) = cos(2t + 1):

The complex exponential Fourier series representation for x(t) = cos(2t + 1) is:

x(t) = C0 * e^(j0ω0t) + C2 * e^(j2ω0t) + C(-2) * e^(j*(-2)ω0t)

= C0 + C2 * e^(j2ω0t) + C(-2) * e^(-j2ω0t)

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The given problem is to find the expected value, variance, and probability of a random variable X with probability 1/4 of getting a head when tossing a coin, and X is the number of times a coin with heads probability 1/4 is tossed until the first head appears. So, let's solve this problem one by one.

E(X)The expected value or mean of a random variable X is given by the formula; E(X) = ∑ xi P(X=xi)

Where xi is the value of X and P(X=xi) is the probability of X takes the value xi. For given problem, Probability of getting a head, P(H) = 1/4

Probability of getting a tail, P(T) = 1 - P(H) = 3/4

For X = 1, P(X=1) = P(H) = 1/4

For X = 2, P(X=2) = P(T)P(H) = 3/4 * 1/4 = 3/16

For X = 3, P(X=3) = P(T)²P(H) = 3/4 * 3/4 * 1/4 = 9/64

Similarly, P(X=4) = P(T)³P(H) = 3/4 * 3/4 * 3/4 * 1/4 = 27/256

and so on E(X) = ∑ xi P(X=xi)= 1*(1/4) + 2*(3/16) + 3*(9/64) + 4*(27/256) + …

E(X) = (4/1)

E(X) = 4

Expected value tells us what we can expect the average of the random variable X to be over an infinite number of independent trials. Here the expected value E(X) tells us that, on average, it will take 4 coin tosses to get the first head when the probability of getting a head is 1/4.

E(X²)

The expected value of X² is given by; E(X²) = ∑ xi² P(X=xi)

For X = 1, X² = 1

P(X=1) = P(H) = 1/4

For X = 2, X² = 4

P(X=2) = P(T)P(H) = 3/4 * 1/4 = 3/16

For X = 3, X² = 9

P(X=3) = P(T)²P(H) = 3/4 * 3/4 * 1/4 = 9/64

Similarly, P(X=4) = P(T)³P(H) = 3/4 * 3/4 * 3/4 * 1/4 = 27/256

and so on

E(X²) = ∑ xi² P(X=xi)= 1*(1/4) + 4*(3/16) + 9*(9/64) + 16*(27/256) + …

E(X²) = (16/1)

E(X²) = 16

V(X) Variance is the measure of how far the random variable is from its expected value. It is calculated by taking the difference between the square of the expected value and the expected value of the square.

V(X) = E(X²) – (E(X))² = 16 – (4)²= 0

OXP(X ≤ 10) and P(X > 5)
P(X ≤ 10) = 1, as it is guaranteed that we will get head in 10 or fewer tosses.

P(X > 5) means we need to find the probability of getting a head after more than 5 coin tosses.

That is, it means the first head appears in the sixth or later tosses.

P(X > 5) = (3/4)⁵= 243/1024

So, E(X) = 4, E(X²) = 16, V(X) = 0, OX = P(X ≤ 10) = 1, and P(X > 5) = 243/1024.

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The surface area of the triangular prism shown below is 186 cm²

An equation is an expression that shows the relationship between two or more numbers and variables.

An independent variable is a variable that does not depends on other variable while a dependent variable is a variable that depends on other variable.

The surface area of prism = 2(9 cm * 7 cm) + (6cm * 9 cm) + 1/2(2 cm * 6 cm) = 186 cm²

The surface area of the triangular prism shown below is 186 cm²

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Among the investments listed, the piece of art is likely to have the greatest liquidity risk.

So, the correct answer is D.

This is because the market for art can be illiquid, meaning that there may not be a lot of buyers or sellers, and it may take time to find a buyer willing to pay a fair price.

On the other hand, mutual funds, corporate bonds, and individual stocks are all typically traded on public exchanges, which means that there is generally a larger pool of potential buyers and sellers, making it easier to quickly buy or sell these investments.

Hence the answer of the question is D.

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Answer:

x = 5

Step-by-step explanation:

150+25x= 55x

      -25x  -25x

150= 30x

150/30 = 30x/30

x = 5

Hope this helps!

Answer: x =5

Steps: 150 + 25x = 55x

Subtract 150 from both sides: 150 + 25x - 150 = 55x - 150

Simplify: 25x = 55x - 150

Subtract 55x from both sides: 25x - 55x = 55x - 150 - 55x

Simplify: -30x = -150

Divide both sides by -30:  -30x ÷ -30 = -150 ÷ -30

Simplify: x = 5

Plz mark brainliest:)

Where 12 samples of 100 printed circuit boards were tested and the number of defective boards in each sample is provided, a control chart that should be constructed to monitor the process is the p-chart.

The p-chart, also known as the proportion chart, is used to monitor the proportion of nonconforming items in a sample. In this case, the number of defective printed circuit boards in each sample can be used to calculate the proportion of defective boards.

To construct the p-chart, you would calculate the proportion of defective boards for each sample by dividing the number of defective boards by the total number of boards in that sample. Then, you can plot these proportions on the control chart to monitor the process over time.

The p-chart helps to identify any shifts or trends in the proportion of defective boards, allowing the quality assurance department to take appropriate actions to maintain or improve the process quality.

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Answer:

$1,738.95

Step-by-step explanation:

FV = PV(1+r/n)^nt

FV = future value

PV = present value = $1,500

r = interest rate = 3.0% = 0.03

n = Number of periods = 1

t = 5 years

FV = PV(1+r/n)^nt

= 1,500(1 + 0.03/1)^1*5

= 1,500(1 + 0.03)^5

= 1500(1.03)^5

= 1,500(1.1593)

= 1,738.95

FV = $1,738.95

The future value of your deposit after 5 years is $1,738.95

Answer: <less than >greater than ≥ greater than or equal to ≤ less than or equal to

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: m=-18

Step-by-step

9*-2=-18 to get m, as 4/-2 = -2

Answer: 0.625 percent

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

-8 , -3 , 2

Step-by-step explanation:

f(x) = x-8

f(0) = 0 - 8 = -8

f(5) = 5-8 = -3

f(10) = 10 - 8 = 2

The answer of the given question based on the assuming that the spins are independent, the pmf of x is P(x = k) = (2/3)^(k-1) * (1/3).

Probability is a measure of likelihood or chance that specific event will occur. It is  branch of mathematics that deals with study of random events and their associated outcomes.

In probability theory, events are typically represented as sets of possible outcomes, and probabilities are assigned to these events based on likelihood of their occurrence. The probability of  event is  number between 0 and 1, where 0 represents  impossible event and 1 represents certain event.

Let's denote the probability of getting a 3 on any given spin as p. Since the spinner only has three numbers, the probability of getting a 3 on any given spin is 1/3.

Now, let's consider the probability distribution of x, the number of spins until the first 3 occurs. The probability that x = 1 is simply the probability of getting a 3 on the first spin, which is p = 1/3.

The probability that x = 2 is the probability of not getting a 3 on the first spin (which is 2/3), multiplied by the probability of getting a 3 on the second spin (which is p = 1/3). So:

P(x = 2) = (2/3) * (1/3) = 2/9

Similarly, the probability that x = 3 is the probability of not getting a 3 on the first two spins (which is (2/3)^2), multiplied by the probability of getting a 3 on the third spin (which is p = 1/3). So:

P(x = 3) = (2/3)²* (1/3) = 4/27

In general, the probability that x = k (where k is a positive integer greater than or equal to 1) is the probability of not getting a 3 on the first k-1 spins (which is (2/3)^(k-1)), multiplied by the probability of getting a 3 on the kth spin (which is p = 1/3). So:

P(x = k) = (2/3)^(k-1) * (1/3)

This is the pmf (probability mass function) of x, the number of spins until the first 3 occurs.

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The answer of the given question based on the assuming that the spins are independent, the pmf of x is P(x = k) =\((2/3)^{k-1}\) × (1/3).

Probability is a measure of likelihood or chance that specific event will occur. It is  branch of mathematics that deals with study of random events and their associated outcomes.

In probability theory, events are typically represented as sets of possible outcomes, and probabilities are assigned to these events based on likelihood of their occurrence. The probability of  event is  number between 0 and 1, where 0 represents  impossible event and 1 represents certain event.

Let's denote the probability of getting a 3 on any given spin as p. Since the spinner only has three numbers, the probability of getting a 3 on any given spin is 1/3.

Now, let's consider the probability distribution of x, the number of spins until the first 3 occurs. The probability that x = 1 is simply the probability of getting a 3 on the first spin, which is p = 1/3.

The probability that x = 2 is the probability of not getting a 3 on the first spin (which is 2/3), multiplied by the probability of getting a 3 on the second spin (which is p = 1/3). So:

P(x = 2) = (2/3) × (1/3) = 2/9

Similarly, the probability that x = 3 is the probability of not getting a 3 on the first two spins (which is (2/3)^2), multiplied by the probability of getting a 3 on the third spin (which is p = 1/3). So:

P(x = 3) = (2/3)² × (1/3)

= 4/27

In general, the probability that x = k (where k is a positive integer greater than or equal to 1) is the probability of not getting a 3 on the first k-1 spins (which is  \((2/3)^{k-1}\)), multiplied by the probability of getting a 3 on the kth spin (which is p = 1/3). So:

P(x = k) = \((2/3)^{k-1}\) × (1/3).

This is the pmf (probability mass function) of x, the number of spins until the first 3 occurs.

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