Answer:
c. because of the fire that heats up surrounding cold air, making it hot
Explanation:
hope it helps
Drag each label to the correct location on the image. Each label can be used more than once
Identify the parts of the energy diagrams.
energy released
energy absorbed
reactants
products
Chemical Reactions That Absorb Energy
transition state
Chemical Reactions That Release Energy
activation
transition state
Energy
energy
Energy
- activation
energy
Progress of the Reaction
Progress of the Reaction
What is meant by the electrical structure of the heart?
Answer:
In the simplest terms, the heart is a pump made up of muscle tissue. Like all muscle, the heart needs a source of energy and oxygen to function. The heart's pumping action is regulated by an electrical conduction system that coordinates the contraction of the various chambers of the heart.
When one dna molecule is copied to make two new dna molecules, the resulting dna molecules contain.
When one DNA molecule is copied to make two new DNA molecules, the resulting DNA molecules contain one parent strand and one newly synthesized daughter strand.
DNA stands for Deoxyribonucleic Acid. It is the genetic material present in majority of the organisms. It is also more stable than RNA. The DNA molecule is composed of two strand joined together through hydrogen bonds between the bases extending out perpendicularly from the backbone.
RNA is also a genetic material. It stand for Ribonucleic Acid. It is the unstable highly reactive form present in very few species as genetic material. It is usually single stranded.
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a baby turtle growing into an adult that appears similar is an example of
Open Ended - Describe the components and interactions of one body system. (Cardiovascular)
Solution:
The cardiovascular system consists of two pumps (left and right ventricle) and two series of circuits:
Pulmonary circuit and systemic circuit.
The systemic circuit:
This circuit begins in one of the great vessels, the aorta, which branches into smaller vessels to the capillaries that finally reach the organs.
Now, the vascular components include arteries, arterioles, and capillaries:
Arteries: they are thick-walled vessels, the blood that circulates in these vessels has high pressure and they carry oxygenated blood to the body's tissues.
Arterioles: they are branches of the arteries.
Capillaries: they have larger surface areas and cross-sections and are the sites of exchange for nutrients, water, and gases.
on the other hand, the vascular components also include the venous circuit, in this circuit, the venules (smaller veins) join to form larger veins until the larger vein, the vena cava, returns blood to the heart:
Veins: thin-walled vessels where blood circulates with low pressure. These vessels contain most of the blood that flows in the cardiovascular system.
Venules: they are the component with the highest permeability in the microcirculation.
Pulmonary circuit:
In the pulmonary circuit, deoxygenated blood leaves the heart's right ventricle and passes into the pulmonary artery (pulmonary artery trunk). The pulmonary artery trunk divides into the right and left pulmonary arteries.
The right and left pulmonary arteries carry deoxygenated blood to the arterioles and capillary beds in the lungs. In this location (lungs), carbon dioxide is released and oxygen is absorbed. The oxygenated blood then passes from the capillary beds through the venules into the pulmonary veins. The pulmonary veins carry it to the left atrium of the heart. The pulmonary arteries are the only arteries that carry deoxygenated blood, and the pulmonary veins are the only veins that carry oxygenated blood.
The heart:
The heart is located between the lungs in the center of the chest (inferior mediastinum), behind, and slightly to the left of the breastbone.
The heart is wrapped in a membrane composed of two layers, this membrane is called the pericardium.
The outer layer of the pericardium surrounds the source of the major blood vessels of the heart and is attached to the spine and diaphragm by ligaments.
The inner layer of the pericardium is attached to the heart muscle (myocardium). A layer of fluid separates the two layers of the membrane, allowing the heart to move as it beats while remaining attached to the body.
The heart has four chambers.
The upper chambers are called atriums and there are two of them: left atrium and right atrium.
On the other hand, the lower chambers are also two and are called left ventricle" and "right ventricle.
A muscular wall called the septum separates the left and right atria and the left and right ventricles.
The left ventricle is the largest and strongest chamber in the heart. In fact, the walls of the left ventricle are strong enough to push blood through the aortic valve to the rest of the body.
Valves are those that control the flow of blood in the heart. These valves are 4.
The tricuspid valve controls blood flow between the right atrium and the right ventricle.
The pulmonary valve controls blood flow from the right ventricle to the pulmonary arteries. Note that the pulmonary arteries carry blood to the lungs to oxygenate this blood.
The mitral valve allows oxygenated blood from the lungs to pass from the left atrium to the left ventricle.
The aortic valve allows oxygen to pass from the left ventricle to the aorta, the largest artery in the body, which carries blood to the rest of the body.
On the other hand, the heart works through a special network of the myocardium, which stimulates the heart to contract. This electrical signal originates from the sinoatrial (SA) node located in the upper part of the right atrium.
Electrical impulses from the sinoatrial node travel through the muscle fibers of the atria and ventricles, stimulating their contraction.
Beagles have floppy ears but Chihuahuas have ears that stand upright. All hybrid puppies exhibit upright ears. Assume that this trait is controlled by a single gene, called EAR. Complete the Punnett square to show the cross between the purebred beagle and Chihuahua parents. Identify the dominant and recessive alleles.
Answer:
Explanation:
To complete the Punnett square for the cross between a purebred beagle and a Chihuahua, we need to identify the dominant and recessive alleles for the trait of ear type.
Let's use the letter "E" to represent the dominant allele for upright ears and the letter "e" to represent the recessive allele for floppy ears.
Purebred beagle: Ee (one dominant allele for upright ears, one recessive allele for floppy ears)
Chihuahua: ee (two recessive alleles for floppy ears)
Punnett square:
| E | e |
--------------------
E | EE | Ee |
--------------------
e | Ee | ee |
In the Punnett square, the top row and left column represent the possible alleles from the beagle parent, and the side row and bottom row represent the possible alleles from the Chihuahua parent.
As seen in the Punnett square, all the hybrid offspring (F1 generation) will have the genotype Ee, indicating that they will exhibit upright ears. The dominant allele "E" for upright ears is expressed in the presence of even one copy, while the recessive allele "e" for floppy ears is only expressed if both copies are present.
Therefore, in this cross, upright ears (represented by the dominant allele) are the dominant trait, and floppy ears (represented by the recessive allele) are the recessive trait.
which of the following is a true statement?samples obtained during transtracheal aspiration are used to evaluate the trachea. the cough reflex is desirable while performing bronchoalveolar lavage. the cough reflex is not desirable while performing percutaneous transtracheal aspiration. microbial samples recovered by endoscopic transtracheal aspiration may not accurately reflect the suspected respiratory disease.
The true statement is; microbial samples recovered by endoscopic transtracheal aspiration may not accurately reflect the suspected respiratory disease. Option D is correct.
Endoscopic transtracheal aspiration is a diagnostic procedure that involves passing an endoscope through the mouth or nose into the trachea to collect samples of mucus, secretions, or cells for laboratory analysis. Although endoscopic transtracheal aspiration can provide valuable information about the nature and severity of respiratory diseases, there are some limitations to the procedure.
One of the limitations is the microbial samples were recovered by the endoscopic transtracheal aspiration may not always accurately reflect the suspected respiratory disease. This can occur because the technique of endoscopic transtracheal aspiration only samples a small area of the respiratory tract, and the results may be affected by factors such as the location and severity of the disease, the timing and technique of the sampling, and the presence of other microorganisms or contaminants.
Hence, D. is the correct option.
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--The given question is incomplete, the complete question is
"Which of the following is a true statement? A) Nsamples obtained during transtracheal aspiration are used to evaluate the trachea. B) the cough reflex is desirable while performing bronchoalveolar lavage. C) the cough reflex is not desirable while performing percutaneous transtracheal aspiration. D) microbial samples recovered by endoscopic transtracheal aspiration may not accurately reflect the suspected respiratory disease."--
Which of the following words means a line separating two symmetrical structures? A. Graph B. Raphe C. Rectal D. Rictus E. Gram
The word that means a line separating two symmetrical structures is Raphe. So, the correct answer is option B.
A raphe is a seam or ridge-like structure that divides two symmetrical parts, such as the two halves of a plant seed or the two hemispheres of the brain.
It is important to note that the other options given in the question have different meanings. A graph is a visual representation of data, while rectal refers to the rectum and rictus refers to a fixed or stiff facial expression. Gram, on the other hand, refers to a unit of measurement in the metric system.
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1 Write the functions of the following:
(a) Pseudopodia (b) Food vacuole
2. Define the following terms-
Phagocytosis
3. Explain how Amoeba takes in nutrition with the help of a diagram.
plzz I need and fast
plz, don't scam..................
thank you
Which is the best example
of genetic diversity?
A. Humans that have different colored
hair
B. A species of birds that eats berries
from trees in one area but eats them
off the ground in another area.
C. Fish that eat tadpoles in the pond but
eat small fish in the lake.
D. A species of snake that sleeps in trees
in the forest but sleeps underground in
the desert.
Answer:
B is the best example
Explanation:
The best example of genetic diversity among the options given is B. A species of birds that eats berries from trees in one area but eats them off the ground in another area.
Genetic diversity refers to the variation in genetic traits among individuals of the same species or among different species. In the given options, option B represents a clear example of genetic diversity because it involves variations in the behavior of the same species of birds in different geographical areas. The birds have adapted their foraging behavior to the available food sources in each area, indicating that there is genetic variability within the species that allows for such adaptations.
Option A, humans that have different colored hair, is an example of phenotypic diversity, which is not necessarily indicative of genetic diversity. While hair color is determined by genetic factors, it is influenced by a complex interplay of environmental factors as well, such as exposure to sunlight and nutrition.
Option C, fish that eat tadpoles in the pond but eat small fish in the lake, is an example of ecological diversity rather than genetic diversity. The different feeding behavior is likely influenced by the availability of food sources in each habitat, rather than genetic differences among the fish.
Option D, a species of snake that sleeps in trees in the forest but sleeps underground in the desert, is also an example of ecological diversity rather than genetic diversity. The snake's behavior is likely influenced by the environmental conditions in each habitat, such as temperature and humidity, rather than genetic differences among the snakes.
Which of the following is an example of an abiotic factor?
A. Plants
B. Sunlight
C. Food
D. Animals
Answer:
B. Sunlight
Explanation:
Abiotic factors are nonliving parts of an environment and it has major influences on living organisms.
during inoculation, the blood agar plate should be stabbed with the inoculating loop. the purpose of this is to:
During inoculation, the blood agar plate should be stabbed with the inoculating loop. The purpose of this is to increase the surface area of the agar exposed to the bacteria and ensure growth of bacteria both aerobically and anaerobically.
When the inoculating loop is stabbed in the blood agar plate, the surface area of the agar that is exposed to the bacteria is increased. This allows the bacteria to grow more easily, which is crucial for identifying and studying the microorganisms present in the sample.
Stabbing the agar also enables the bacteria to grow both aerobically and anaerobically by allowing oxygen to diffuse into the agar at the surface and enabling bacteria to grow anaerobically in the deeper regions of the agar. It also helps to distribute the bacteria evenly throughout the agar and prevents the formation of concentric colonies. By using this technique, the growth of bacteria is ensured and the presence of various microorganisms can be accurately observed.
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Which one of these is NOT a product of selective breeding?
a
yellow corn
b
Gray wolf
c
Sun Gold tomato
d
Chiweenie
e
modern wheat
The attributes that can be arranged into hierarchy are cal'
Select one:
a. Simple attributes
b. Derived attributes
c. Atomic attributes
d. Composite attributes
15. Relational model eases the job of the programmer, compared to earlier data models such as Select one:
a. Both Network and Hierarchical
b. Network model
c. Hierarchical model
d. Semistructured model
16. The set of values which specifies which values are to be assigned to individual entities is considered as
Select one:
a. Derivation of values
b. Composition of values
c. Attribution of values
d. Domain of values
17. The structuring of database by specifying the types and constraints of data is classified as
Select one:
a. Analyzing a database
b. Filtering a database
c. Creating a database
d. Defining a database
18. The relational model is today the primary data model for commercial
Select one:
a. Data program application
b. Data processing applications
c. Data management applications
d. Data storage applications
19. The function which causes the retrieval of any kind of data from database is considered as
Select one:
a. Storing cycle
b. Structure
c. Query
d. Key
20. In relational database schemas, the transition constraints are also known as
Select one:
a. Explicit constraints
b. Implicit constraints
c. Static constraints
d. Dynamic constraints
21. The form of data model in which the concepts provided are useful for end users and are also close to the way it is stored in computer system is called
Select one:
a. Representational data models
b. Clientele data models
c. Implementation data models
d. Both representational and implentation data
models
22. The form of data model which focuses the concepts in the same way as the data stored in computer system is classified as
Select one:
a. Medium level data models
b. Dynamic data models
c. High level data models
d. Low level data models
23. The key that uniquely identifies each record is called
Select one:
a. Field name
b. Key record
c. Unique key
d. Primary key
24. The key that uniquely identifies each record is called
Select one:
a. Field name
b. Key record
c. Unique key
d. Primary key
The attributes that can be arranged into hierarchy are composite attributes. A composite attribute, as the name suggests, is composed of multiple atomic or simple attributes.
The attributes that cannot be split into simpler attributes are called atomic or simple attributes. Composite attributes. A composite attribute is one that is made up of two or more atomic attributes. The reason for grouping the attributes together is so that the users can understand the attributes better. Relational model eases the job of the programmer, compared to earlier data models such as both Network and Hierarchical.
Network and Hierarchical models were replaced by the Relational model due to its limitations. As opposed to the Network and Hierarchical models, which have restrictions on the way data is stored, the Relational model provides more flexibility and simplifies the programmer's work. The set of values which specifies which values are to be assigned to individual entities is considered as Attribution of values.
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Someone help me plzzzzzzzzz
report you :v
dddddddddddddddd
Answer:
google names of animals & use that lol
Explanation:
use google
Write a ""lifeline"" of a robin over the first year of its life. Include important events.
Answer: I hope that this helps you please give me brainiest
Robins are born in the spring or summer and are mature birds and ready to breed in the following spring or summer. They do not mate for life. Pairs usually remain together during an entire breeding season, which can involve two or three nestlings.
Since leaving the nest (fledgling), it takes another 10-15 days for babies to become good fliers and individual birds. The parents continue to feed their young throughout this time.
Explanation:
How long do robins live?
A. Most robins die their first year. But the lifespan goes up dramatically for the ones that survive that critical time, because they've learned so many important life skills. Of those that survive their first year, most wild robins live to be about 5 or 6. As of February, 2001, the longest-living banded wild robin ever recorded had survived 13 years and 11 months, according to the Bird Banding Laboratory at the Patuxent Wildlife Research Center. In captivity, robins have survived longer than 17 years.
Q. Do robins mate for life?
A. No, robins do not mate for life. Pairs usually remain together during an entire breeding season, which can involve two or three nestings. However, in spring, sometimes a male and female who mated the previous year will both return to the same territory and end up together for another year. This happens most frequently when they were successful raising babies the previous year.
Q. How long do robins stay in the egg? (egg stage)
A. About 12-14 days after the last egg was laid. (Robins lay one egg per day, for a total of 5-6 eggs in a clutch.)
Q. How long do robin babies stay in the nest (nestling stage)?
A. Baby robins jump from their nest when they are about 13 days old (but the range is 9 - 16 days old).
Q. When do young robins learn to fly? (fledgling stage)
A. After leaving the nest (fledging), it takes another 10-15 days for babies to become strong fliers and independent birds.
Q. How long does it take a robin to go from egg to independence?
A. Here is a summary:
Life Cycle Stage # Days
Egg 12 - 14
Nestling 9 - 16
Fledgling 10 - 15
Total 31 - 45
Q. How old are robins when they mate?
A. Almost one year old. Robins are mature adults and ready to breed in the spring that follows the spring or summer they were born.
PLEASE HELP!!!!
A laboratory investigation included examining multicellular organisms that has a nucleus and could move from one place to another. The organisms probably belong to the kingdom:
A. Animalia
B. Eubacteria
C. Plantae
D. Fungi
Answer:
A. Animalia
Explanation:
Animals are multicellular organisms. They have a nucleus and can move from one place to another.
A cell that has neither a net gain of water nor net loss of water when it is immersed in a solution must be
A. metabolically inactive.
B. isotonic to its environment.
C. hypotonic to its environment.
D. hypertonic to its environment.
B. isotonic to its environment.
When a cell is in an isotonic solution, it has an equal concentration of solutes inside and outside of the cell, which means there is no net movement of water. This is the ideal state for a cell, as it maintains its shape and function without gaining or losing too much water. A cell that is metabolically inactive would not be able to maintain this state, and cells that are hypotonic or hypertonic to their environment will experience a net gain or loss of water, respectively.
An isotonic solution refers to a type of solution that has the same concentration of dissolved solutes (e.g., salt, sugar, ions) as the fluid inside cells or blood plasma. In an isotonic solution, there is no net movement of water into or out of the cells, as the concentration of solutes inside and outside the cells is the same, creating a balance. This makes isotonic solutions particularly useful in medical settings, such as for intravenous fluids or eye drops, as they are less likely to cause damage to cells than solutions that are hypotonic (lower concentration of solutes) or hypertonic (higher concentration of solutes). Examples of isotonic solutions include normal saline (0.9% sodium chloride) and lactated Ringer's solution.
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which of the following characteristics of k channels are important for the selectivity for k rather than other ions? choose one or more: a. four rigid protein loops line the narrowest part of the pore. b. carbonyl groups line the wall of the pore. c. basic side chains line the wall of the pore. d. acidic side chains line the wall of the pore.
Potassium channels are an essential part of cell membrane functioning, allowing potassium ions to pass through the channels in a highly selective manner. Potassium channels have a variety of characteristics that contribute to their selectivity for potassium ions, including the presence of four rigid protein loops that line the narrowest part of the pore and the presence of carbonyl groups lining the wall of the pore.
The four rigid protein loops that line the narrowest part of the pore are important for the selectivity of potassium channels because they create a narrow, highly selective pathway for potassium ions to pass through. These loops are highly conserved among potassium channels, which is likely to reflect their importance in channel function.
The carbonyl groups that line the wall of the pore are also important for the selectivity of potassium channels because they form strong electrostatic interactions with the positively charged potassium ions. This electrostatic interaction helps to stabilize the potassium ions as they move through the pore, while also repelling other ions that do not have a similar charge.
The acidic and basic side chains that line the wall of the pore are not important for the selectivity of potassium channels, as they do not contribute to the selective binding of potassium ions.
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The main function of which of these body systems is to create the movement a swimmer needs to swim across a swimming pool?.
Answer: Muscular System
Explanation:
The Muscular System creates the movement a swimmer needs to swim across a swimming pool.
Why do fish need oxygen to survive?
Answer:
So they can breathe
Explanation:
Without oxygen the fish can't breath, they would then suffocate and die.
Sorry if your asking for a more detailed answer, but I'm not sure what else to say
a base insertion or deletion in the translated region of the gene may lead to
A base insertion or deletion in the translated region of the gene may lead to a frameshift mutation.
A frameshift mutation occurs when the addition or removal of one or more nucleotide bases in the translated region of a gene causes a shift in the reading frame. This shift changes the way the genetic code is read, potentially leading to the production of a nonfunctional protein or premature termination of translation.
Frameshift mutations can have significant effects on an organism, as they often result in drastic changes to the protein being produced. These mutations can lead to a range of consequences, from genetic diseases to changes in an organism's traits. However, the specific outcome of a frameshift mutation depends on the location of the mutation within the gene, the specific base(s) inserted or deleted, and the organism's overall genetic makeup.
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Match each characteristic to bacterial protein synthesis or eukaryotic protein synthesis.
Answer Bank:
First AUG initiates translation.
Shine-Dalgarno sequence
80S ribosome.
70S ribosome.
simultaneous transcription
and translation possible
spatial separation of
transcription and translation
polycistronic mRNA
Polycistronic mRNA - Bacterial mRNA can contain multiple coding regions (cistrons), allowing for the synthesis of several proteins from a single mRNA molecule.
Bacterial Protein Synthesis:
1. Shine-Dalgarno sequence - This sequence is found in bacterial mRNA and helps with the binding of the ribosome to the mRNA.
2. 70S ribosome - Bacterial ribosomes are smaller, with a total size of 70S.
3. Simultaneous transcription and translation possible - In bacteria, transcription and translation can occur simultaneously in the cytoplasm.
4. Polycistronic mRNA - Bacterial mRNA can contain multiple coding regions (cistrons), allowing for the synthesis of several proteins from a single mRNA molecule.
Eukaryotic Protein Synthesis:
1. First AUG initiates translation - In eukaryotes, the first AUG codon signals the start of translation.
2. 80S ribosome - Eukaryotic ribosomes are larger, with a total size of 80S.
3. Spatial separation of transcription and translation - In eukaryotes, transcription occurs in the nucleus, while translation occurs in the cytoplasm, creating a spatial separation.
4. Monocistronic mRNA - Eukaryotic mRNA typically contains a single coding region, allowing for the synthesis of only one protein per mRNA molecule.
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1. Compare Seled Subject C from the SIMULATION pane. Identify each of subject C's chromosomes, and place them on the KARYOTYPING pane. Once you have completed the karyotype, take a snapshot of it. Paste the snapshot into a document. Label it Subject C How does subject C's karyotype differ from a normal karyotype?
The presence of three XY chromosomes makes this one unique. A chromosomal anomaly is identified when a person's cells do not possess the proper number of chromosomes.
What do you mean by simulation?
A simulation is a model that simulates the functioning of an existing or future system by enabling the testing of various scenarios or process enhancements. It offers data that can be used to make decisions. This may be integrated with virtual reality technologies for a more engaging experience.
What is a synonym for simulation?
A few typical synonyms for simulate include assume, fake, pretend, counterfeit, and sham. All of these phrases refer to "putting on a false or deceitful look," but simulate denotes a precise recreation of an appearance.
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Is the transport of substances across the membrane against its concentration gradient?
The transport of substances across the membrane against its concentration gradient, yes it is possible through active transport.
Active transport is a process that requires energy to move substances from a low concentration area to a high concentration area. This is opposite to the natural flow of molecules, which is from high to low concentration. Active transport is the movement of ions or molecules across a cell membrane from a lower concentration to a higher concentration, requiring the assistance of a carrier protein and energy in the form of adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
Active transport is divided into two types based on the energy source used: primary and secondary active transport. In primary active transport, energy comes from ATP hydrolysis, whereas in secondary active transport, energy is supplied by the movement of ions down their concentration gradient created by a primary active transport mechanism.
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What happens during S phase?
O A. Chromosomes are duplicated.
O B. DNA separates into two nuclei.
O C. The cell splits in two.
O D. Cytoplasm is manufactured.
Answer: A. Chromosomes are duplicated.
Explanation: This is the correct answer on the quiz.
Chromosomes are duplicated in S phase. Therefore, option (A) is correct.
What do you mean by S phase?
Between G1 phase and G2 phase, DNA replication takes place during S phase of the cell cycle. The processes that take place during S-phase are tightly controlled and highly conserved.
The cell replicates its genetic material entirely during the S phase of DNA synthesis; At the end of S phase, a normal diploid somatic cell with a DNA complement of 2N acquires a DNA complement of 4N.
DNA synthesis or replication occurs during the S phase of the cell cycle, which occurs prior to the interphase. Before entering mitosis or meiosis, the cell's genetic material is replicated in this manner, leaving enough DNA for daughter cells to divide.
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which trait would best indicate that a particular arthropod was a member of subphylum chelicerata? group of answer choices
Two body segment would best indicate that a particular arthropod was a member of subphylum chelicerata.
What is body segment in animal?
segmentation in biology is a division of some animals and plants body plan's onto a series of repetitive segments. This article of focuses on the are segmentation of animal to the body plans, specifically the using of the examples are- taxa Arthropoda, Chordata, and Annelida.
The trait that would best indicate that a particular arthropod was a member of subphylum chelicerata is that it possess two body segments instead of three; a fused head and thorax (cephalothorax), and an abdomen (opisthosoma). Their segmented body with jointed limbs is covered in a cuticle made of chitin and proteins. The subphylum chelicerata includes the arachnids, horseshoe crabs, scorpions and related forms.
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In Drosophila, the gene for eye color (A), wing shape (B), and body color (C) are all found on the same chromosome. The following crossover frequencies for these genes were determined by & trihybrid test-cross experiments. Determine the sequence of genes A, B, and C on a chromosome. There are two correct answers: Crossover Frequency 12% Genes A&B A&C B&C 18%
The correct sequence of the genes A, B and C found on the same chromosome can be : B A C or C A B.
Genes are the part of DNA sequences that code for a certain protein responsible for a particular trait. These genes are present upon the chromosomes. Each chromatid can contain multiple genes on it.
According to the question, the crossover frequency between genes B and C is 18 % hence they are the farthest (18% = 18 centi-Morgan). And the frequency between genes A & B and A & C is 12% and 6% respectively. Therefore the distance of B and C is the sum of the remaining two. This determines the sequence could be B A C or C A B.
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What are organic molecules? What are organic foods? How does
organic food address the health risks discussed in chapter 8? Are
you, and how, utilizing organic foods?
Carbon atoms are bound to other carbon atoms in organic molecules, which also frequently contain other elements like hydrogen, oxygen, etc.
Carbon atoms bound to other carbon atoms make up organic molecules, which also frequently contain other elements like hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, etc. These are the elements making up all living things, like plants, animals, and bacteria which are thus essential to biological processes. Agricultural items that are grown and processed without utilizing synthetic chemicals, like synthetic fertilizers, pesticides, and herbicides, are referred to as organic foods. Natural fertilisers, crop rotation, biological pest management, and other ecologically beneficial techniques are prioritised in organic agricultural practises.
Natural insecticides, herbicides, and fertilisers are not used in the production of organic foods, which may lower the danger of ingesting chemical residues. It is important to remember, though, that some pesticides with organically derived ingredients are permitted in organic cultivation. A food that is organic could have more of a few nutrients, like vitamin C, iron, and magnesium. However, nutrient content discrepancies between foods cultivated organically and conventionally can vary depending on a number of variables, including crop type, farming methods, and soil quality.
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Is scientific law a proven concept? Explain why or why not.