Given that sin(90 -5ϴ) = Cos(180 - ϴ), Find the value of ϴ
​

Cutting at less than a right angle to the axis but more than the angle made by the side of the cone produces an ellipse.

Therefore, with this above statement, the statement which best describes how to slice a cone so that the resulting cross-section is an ellipse is

A plane slicing the cone diagonally without intersecting the base

The correct option, therefore, is OPTION B

The 5-digit codes can be made using the 10 digits if repetition is permitted is 90000

To open the lock, you may press a 5-digit code on a set of buttons

The repetition of digits is allowed

The first digit cannot be a zero, so the number of possible options is 9

In the second digit the number of possible options is 10

In the third digit the number of possible options is 10

In the fourth digit the number of possible options is 10

In the fifth digit the number of possible options is 10

So the number of possible outcomes is given by

9 x 10 x 10 x 10 x 10

= 90000

The 5-digit codes can be made using the 10 digits if repetition is permitted is 90000

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Answer: $56.25

Step-by-step explanation:

First, I'm going to assume that she makes 25% profit on the selling price.

Set the cost of the shirt as x. Profit is calculated as selling price - cost. Profit is stated to be 25% or \(\frac{1}{4}\), so an equation can be set up as:

\(\frac{1}{4} *75=75-cost\\\\cost = 75-\frac{1}{4} *75=56.25\)

Answer:

$5635.72

Step-by-step explanation:

Compound interest formula when interest is applied once per year:

A (final amount) = P(starting amount) * (1+r(rate))^t (time)

rate = 7%

to convert to a decimal, divide by 100

rate = 7/100 = 0.07

A = 14000 * (1+0.07)^5

   = 19635.72

interest earned = final - initial = 19635.72 - 14000 = 5635.72

Answer:

921325363200

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

921325363200

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 2021

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

x² + x + 1

Step-by-step explanation:

The given equation can be solved for the value of x and y

i.e. x = (3y - 7)/4 & y = (4x + 7)/3.

What is the linear equation?

An algebraic equation of the form y=mx+b is referred to as a linear equation. m is the slope, and b is the y-intercept, and all that is involved is a constant and a first-order (linear) term. The variables in the preceding equation are y and x, and it is occasionally referred to as a "linear equation of two variables."

We have,

The equation 4x=3y-7

So, here we can solve this equation for the x as well as y equals,

Firstly we will solve for x:

4x = 3y - 7

dividing the whole equation by 4 we get,

4x/4 = (3y - 7)/4

x = (3y - 7)/4

Similarly, we will solve for y:

4x = 3y - 7

3y = 4x + 7

dividing the whole equation by 3 we get,

3y/3 = (4x + 7)/3

y = (4x + 7)/3

Hence, the given equation can be solved for the value of x and y

i.e. x = (3y - 7)/4 & y = (4x + 7)/3

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Answer:

30 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

20 * 96 / 64 = 30

Answer:

apsppspspppp9ğpğğ999

Therefore, we can conclude that if A and B are non-empty sets of positive integers, then A + B is finite if and only if both A and B are finite.

The given problem is asking us to prove that A + B is finite if and only if both A and B are finite, where A and B are non-empty sets of positive integers. Let us try to prove this claim.Step 1: Prove that A + B is finite if A and B are finiteWe can prove this statement by contradiction. Let's assume that A and B are finite, but A + B is infinite. Since A and B are finite, they must have a maximum element, say a_0 and b_0. Then, A + B contains all the positive integers greater than or equal to a_0 + b_0. But this contradicts the assumption that A + B is infinite. Hence, A + B must be finite.Step 2: Prove that A + B is infinite if A or B is infiniteLet's assume that A is infinite and B is finite. We will show that A + B is infinite. Since A is infinite, we can find a_1 > a_0 such that a_1 ∈ A. Similarly, we can find b_1 ∈ B such that b_1 > b_0. Then, a_1 + b_1 > a_0 + b_0. Thus, A + B contains all the positive integers greater than or equal to a_1 + b_1, which means A + B is infinite. Similarly, we can prove that A + B is infinite if B is infinite. Hence, we have proved that A + B is finite if and only if both A and B are finite.Conclusion:Therefore, we can conclude that if A and B are non-empty sets of positive integers, then A + B is finite if and only if both A and B are finite.

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2 different expressions that involve only outs and powers of 2 which are equivalent 4 2/3 / 8 1/4

1) (4^2 * 2^-1 * 3^1) / (8^1 * 2^-2 * 4^-1)

2) (2^5 * 3^1) / (2^6 * 4^-1)

1) (4^2 * 2^-1 * 3^1) / (8^1 * 2^-2 * 4^-1)

This expression is equivalent to 4 2/3 / 8 1/4 because it is written in terms of powers of two. 4^2 is equal to 16, which is the numerator in 4 2/3. 2^-1 is the same as 1/2, which is the second fraction in 4 2/3. 3^1 is equal to 3, which is the numerator in 8 1/4. 8^1 is equal to 8, which is the denominator in 8 1/4. 2^-2 is the same as 1/4, which is the second fraction in 8 1/4. 4^-1 is equal to 1/4, which is the first fraction in 8 1/4. When all the terms are multiplied and divided, it is the same as 4 2/3 / 8 1/4.

2) (2^5 * 3^1) / (2^6 * 4^-1)

This expression is also equivalent to 4 2/3 / 8 1/4 because it is written similar to above equation.

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The value of algebraic expression 2³x + 4 for x = - 1 will be equal to - 4.

2³ x + 4 =  ( 2 )³ x + 4 = 8x + 4

8x + 4 =  8(-1) + 4

          = -8 + 4

          = -4

Therefore, the value of algebraic expression 2³x + 4 for x = - 1 will be equal to - 4.

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The base is 24.

Let the base be b. we know that b>8

If we added everything, it would look something like this:

66 + 87 + 85 + 48

=132

Adding up the one's digit gives us 26, so we have 26 mod b=2

The only options for b are b = 12 or 24.

If b = 12, the sum of the one's digit would be \(22_{12}\) so we could carry the 2 to the tens column. Adding everything up would give us \(24_{12}\) the answer is \(242_{12}\)

That means the base is 24.

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here this probally will help

Answer:

5, 3

Step-by-step explanation:

The water in the aquarium tank will rise by 0.05 cm when the brick is placed in the bottom of the tank.

The volume of the brick is calculated as 40 cm x 20 cm x 10 cm = 8000 cm^3. Since the brick is submerged in the water, the amount of water displaced by the brick is equal to the volume of the brick. Therefore, the water level will rise by the same amount as the volume of the brick, which is \(8000 cm^3\).

To calculate the rise in water level, we need to divide the volume of the brick by the area of the rectangular base of the tank. The area of the rectangular base is calculated as 100 cm x 400 cm = \(40000 cm^2\). Dividing the volume of the brick (\(8000 cm^3\)) by the area of the rectangular base \(40000 cm^2\) gives us 0.2 cm. However, the brick is not placed at the bottom of the tank, but rather at a height of 40 cm. Therefore, we need to divide the calculated value by the height of the tank, which is 40 cm. This gives us a final result of 0.2 cm / 40 cm = 0.05 cm, which is the rise in water level when the brick is placed in the bottom of the tank.

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In a normal distribution with a mean of 120.0 and a standard deviation of 30.0, there are 300 variates between 130 and 150.

Here is the breakdown-

To find the number of variates in the whole distribution, we need to calculate the area under the curve between the lowest and highest values of the distribution.

In this case, the lowest value is 130 and the highest value is 150.

We can use the standard normal distribution table or a statistical calculator to find the area under the curve between these two values. The area represents the proportion of variates within that range.

Once we have the proportion, we can multiply it by the total number of variates (300) to find the actual number of variates in the whole distribution.

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n = 6, taking the sample points to be left endpoints, for the function f(x) = cos(x) over the interval 0 ≤ x ≤ 3/4, we can calculate the sum using the left endpoint rule and round the answer to six decimal places.

The Riemann sum is an approximation of the definite integral of a function using rectangles. In this case, we are given the function f(x) = cos(x) over the interval 0 ≤ x ≤ 3/4.

To evaluate the Riemann sum with n = 6 and left endpoints, we divide the interval [0, 3/4] into six subintervals of equal width. The width of each subinterval is (b - a) / n, where n is the number of subintervals and (b - a) is the interval length (3/4 - 0 = 3/4).

We calculate the left endpoint of each subinterval by using the formula x = a + (i - 1) * (b - a) / n, where i represents the index of each subinterval.

Next, we evaluate the function f(x) = cos(x) at each left endpoint and multiply it by the width of the corresponding subinterval. Then, we sum up the areas of all the rectangles to get the Riemann sum.

Finally, we round the answer to six decimal places to comply with the given precision requirement.

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Answer:

m = -2

Step-by-step explanation:

1. use the slope formula --> (y2-y1)/(x2-x1)

2. (11 -(-1))/(-8 -(-2))

3. 12/-6

4. m = -2

Answer:

The slope is -2

Step-by-step explanation:

We can use the slope formula

m = ( y2-y1)/(x2-x1)

   = ( 11- -1)/( -8 - -2)

   ( 11+1)/( -8+2)

    12/-6

  -2

Answer:

2

Step-by-step explanation:

r(x) = 2 sqrt(x)

s(x) = sqrt(x)

r(x) / s(x) =  2 sqrt(x) / sqrt(x)

              = 2

Answer:

2

Step-by-step explanation:

Edge,

Answer: I believe it is 6 degrees or 5

Step-by-step explanation: just like a clock has  360 degrees *cause its a circle* and has 60 minutes and each minutes = 6 or 5

Answer:

h = 1

Step-by-step explanation:

5h - 2h + 6 = 9h

3h + 6 = 9h

6 = 6h

1 = h

Answer:

set up schools

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability of filling an order between day 3 and 5 is 0.67, or 67%.

The time it takes a wholesaler to fill an order follows a uniform distribution from three to six days. To find the probability that they will fill an order between day 3 and 5, we need to calculate the cumulative probability of the uniform distribution between these two values.

The cumulative probability of a uniform distribution between two values a and b is given by:

P(a <= X <= b) = (b - a) / (max - min)

Where X is a random variable representing the time it takes to fill an order, min is the minimum value of the distribution (3 days), and max is the maximum value of the distribution (6 days).

So, for the uniform distribution between 3 and 5 days, the cumulative probability is:

P(3 <= X <= 5) = (5 - 3) / (6 - 3) = 2 / 3 = 0.67

This means that the probability of filling an order between day 3 and 5 is 0.67, or 67%. In other words, the wholesaler has a 67% chance of filling an order between day 3 and 5.

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Since MNP is equilateral, so <PNM=60, and since OP//NM, and <PON is 90, so <MNO=90=<PNM+PNO,so 90=60+<PNO,so <PNO=30

So, the solution to the integral is \((-sin(2x) + 2cos(2x))e^{(-x)}/5.\)

To evaluate the integral ∫\(e^{(-x)} sin(2x) dx\), we can use integration by parts. The formula for integration by parts is ∫u dv = uv - ∫v du, where u and v are functions of x.

Let's assign u = sin(2x) and \(dv = e^{(-x)} dx\). Then, we can find du and v as follows:

Differentiating u = sin(2x) with respect to x:

du/dx = 2cos(2x)

Integrating \(dv = e^{(-x)} dx:\)

\(v = ∫e^{(-x)} dx \\= e^{(-x)}\)

Now, we can apply the integration by parts formula:

\(e^{(-x)} sin(2x) dx = -sin(2x)e^{(-x)} - (-e^{(-x)} )(2cos(2x)) dx\)

Simplifying the integral on the right-hand side:

Now, we have a new integral to evaluate. Let's use integration by parts again. This time, let's assign u = cos(2x) and dv = e^(-x) dx:

Differentiating u = cos(2x) with respect to x:

du/dx = -2sin(2x)

Integrating dv = e^(-x) dx:

v = ∫e^(-x) dx = -e^(-x)

Applying the integration by parts formula again:

∫e^(-x)cos(2x) dx = -cos(2x)e^(-x) - ∫(-e^(-x))(-2sin(2x)) dx

\(= -cos(2x)e^{(-x)} + 2∫e^{(-x)}sin(2x) dx\)

Dividing both sides by 5:

∫e^(-x) sin(2x) dx = (-sin(2x) + 2cos(2x))e^(-x)/5\(∫e^{(-x)} sin(2x) dx = (-sin(2x) + 2cos(2x))e^{(-x)}/5\)

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Answer:

A. 33 and 23

Step-by-step explanation:

33 and 23 have a sum of 56 and a difference of 10, so the answer is A. 33 and 23

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

a) 12.96 kg

b) $90

Step-by-step explanation:

\(a)\ 12+\frac{12\times 8}{100} =12+0.96=12.96\)

\(b)\ 75+\frac{75\times 20}{100} =75+15=90\)

Answer:

a.) 12.96kg b.) $90

Step-by-step explanation:

increasing 12 by 8%, first find 8 percent of 12,

8/100 x 12, then add that to the original 8

so 8/100 x 12 = 0.96, so increasing 12kg by 0.96kg, we get 12.96 kg

increasing 75 dollars by 20%, or 1/5th, we find 1/5th of 75, then add it onto 75

1/5th of 75 is 15, so 75 + 15 = 90

She bought a total of 2 3/4 pounds.

We have,

3/4 pound of yogurt-covered raisins,

5/8 pound of white chocolate raisins,

and 1 3/8 pounds of dark chocolate raisins.

She bought a total of

= 3/4 + 5/8 + 1 3/8

= 6/8 + 5/8 + 11/8

= 22/8

= 11/4

= 2 3/4 pounds

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She can buy 11/4 pounds of raisins.

Given that;

Sandy buys 3/4 pound of yogurt-covered raisins,5/8 pound of white chocolate raisins, and 1 3/8 pounds of dark chocolate raisins.

Hence, Total raisin she buy is,

⇒ 3/4 + 5/8 + 1 3/8

⇒ 6/8 + 5/8 + 11/8

⇒ 22/8

⇒ 11/4 pounds

Thus, She can buy 11/4 pounds of raisins.

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