Explain how the graph of each given function is a transformation of the graph of

The steps which you would take to determine if these figures are similar include the following:

2. Multiply the vertices of polygon ABCD by 1/2.

5. Reflect the intermediate image.

In Mathematics and Geometry, a dilation is a type of transformation which typically transforms the dimension (size) or side lengths of a geometric object, without affecting its shape.

Therefore, the dimension or side lengths of the dilated geometric object would be stretched or compressed (shrunk) depending on the scale factor that is applied.

By critically observing the graph representing polygon ABCD, we can logically deduce that a sequence of transformations that would polygon ABCD (pre-image) onto polygon A"B"C"D" (image) is a dilation by a scale factor of 1/2 and a reflection of intermediate image.

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Missing information:

The question is incomplete and the complete question is shown in the attached picture.

The scale factor is: 1/5.

The missing sides of figure B are: 2.4, 3.6, and 4.

Scale factor = dimension of new figure / dimension of original figure

The polygons given are shown in the diagram attached below.

Figure A is the original figure

Figure B is the new figure.

x, y, and z has been used to mark the missing sides of figure B.

One dimension of original figure = 15

Corresponding dimension of the new figure = 3

Scale factor = new/original = 3/15

Scale factor = 1/5

To find the missing sides of figure B, multiply each corresponding side lengths of Figure A by the scale factor:

x = 12 × 1/5 = 2.4

y = 18 × 1/5 = 3.6

z = 20 × 1/5 = 4

In summary:

The scale factor is: 1/5.

The missing sides of figure B are: 2.4, 3.6, and 4.

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Answer:

c. 29 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 288 square yards

The Polygon is rectangular in shape

The area of a rectangle = Length x width

The length of the rectangle = 12 yards

The width = 2 yards + 20 yards + 2 yards

Width = 22 + 2

Width = 24 yards

AREA = Length x width

Area = 12 x 24

Area = 288 square yards

A person would need to buy 60 square yards of carpet for a rectangular room with dimensions of 10 yards by 18 feet.

How to determine the amount of carpet needed for a rectangular room?

To determine the amount of carpet needed for a rectangular room, you need to convert the measurements to the same unit of measurement. Since the carpet is sold in square yards, we need to convert the dimensions of the room to yards.

The length of the room is given in yards, so we don't need to make any conversions for that dimension. However, the width of the room is given in feet, so we need to convert it to yards by dividing by 3 (since there are 3 feet in a yard),

18 feet ÷ 3 feet/yard = 6 yards

So the dimensions of the room in yards are 10 yards by 6 yards.

To find the total area of the room, we need to multiply the length and width,

10 yards × 6 yards = 60 square yards

Therefore, a person would need to buy 60 square yards of carpet for a rectangular room with dimensions of 10 yards by 18 feet.

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Its 1

Doubled:-

\(\\ \rm\longmapsto 1\times 1=1=1^3\)

\(\\ \rm\longmapsto 1\times 1\times 1=1=1^2\)

The computer will not fit into Mary’s cabin because it doesn't satisfy the Pythagoras theorem.

The Pythagoras theorem states that the square of the longest side must be equal to the sum of the square of the other two sides in a right-angle triangle.

\(|AC|^2 = |AB|^2 + |BC|^2\)

Given that Mary wants a computer monitor for her desk which can hold a 22-inch monitor. She has to find a monitor 16 inches wide and 10 inches high.

Using the Pythagoras theorem;

22² = 16² + 10²

Thus, 22²  = 484

16² + 10² = 256 + 100

= 356

22² ≠ 16² + 10²

Hence, The answer is No, the computer will not fit into Mary’s cabin.

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Answer:

33

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

33

Step-by-step explanation:

according to PEMDAS, you would solve for the 3^3 first, which is 27. Then you would divide 14 by 7 which is 2. The laws of PEMDAS says you have to multiply before you add, so you multiply 2 by 3 which is 6. 27 + 6 equals 33.

Hi there!  

»»————-　★　————-««

I believe your answer is:  

\(p =\frac{q-5r}{2}\)

»»————-　★　————-««  

Here’s why:  

⸻⸻⸻⸻

\(\boxed{\text{Solving for 'p'...}}\\\\2p+5r=q\\-----------\\\\\rightarrow 2p + 5r - 5r = q - 5r\\\\\rightarrow 2p = q - 5r\\\\\rightarrow \frac{2p=q-5r}{2}\\\\\rightarrow \boxed{p =\frac{q-5r}{2}}\)

⸻⸻⸻⸻

»»————-　★　————-««  

Hope this helps you. I apologize if it’s incorrect.  

Answer:

d = sqrt(17)

Step-by-step explanation:

d = sqrt( x2 - x1)^2 + (y2 - y1)^2  )

d = sqrt( (4 - 5)^2 + (-3 - 1)^2 )

d = sqrt( (-1)^2 + (-4)^2  )

d = sqrt ( 1 + 16)

d = sqrt(17)

Answer:

(4,-1)

Step-by-step explanation:

Kennedy took a taxi from.her house tonthe airport. The taxi company charged a pick up fee of $3.20 plus $3.75 per mile. The total fare was $14.45 not including the tip. Write and solve an equation to determine the number of miles in the taxi ride.

Answer:

3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

ok so I found the answer, the plane has to go back to north

Step-by-step explanation:

Well first you have to remember the plane was supposed to go north

But then he crashed at East so he has to go back to North

        I hope this answered your question, Also for the diagram

        Um you can draw a quick picture that shows all of this information,

        So like, a triangle that shows where he needed to go and where he  

         went and in how many km it was from there to there.

              Im new so If this Did not help please get another person                  

The bearing of Manchester from Cambridge is 286 kilometers.

Given that a plane is at Manchester, which is 170km north of Worcester, and the plane flies in a straight line for 230km and lands in Cambridge, which is directly east of Worcester, to find the bearing of Manchester from Cambridge the following calculation must be done, applying the Pythagorean Theorem:

Therefore, the bearing of Manchester from Cambridge is 286 kilometers.

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More than once a week: 0.11

Once a week: 0.51

Every other week: 0.26

Every three weeks: 0.05

Less often than every three weeks: 0.07

To make a relative frequency distribution, follow these steps:

Count the number of occurrences of each category in the data. In this case, 11% of the 251 participants responded "more than once a week", so the number of occurrences for this category is 0.11 * 251 = 27.61 (rounded to 28). Similarly, 51% of the participants responded "once a week", so the number of occurrences for this category is 0.51 * 251 = 127.51 (rounded to 128). And so on for the other categories.

Divide the number of occurrences for each category by the total number of participants. In this case, the total number of participants is 251, so the relative frequency for "more than once a week" is 28 / 251 = 0.11. The relative frequency for "once a week" is 128 / 251 = 0.51. And so on for the other categories.

And that's it! These are the relative frequencies for each category in the data.

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Answer:

you got that

Step-by-step explanation:

wet wet wet

Answer:

{ x : x > 2 }

Step-by-step explanation:

4x - 3 + 6x > 5x + 7 , that is

10x - 3 > 5x + 7 ( subtract 5x from both sides )

5x - 3 > 7 ( add 3 to both sides )

5x > 10 ( divide both sides by 5 )

x > 2

Answer:

4y + 10

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the perimeter of a rectangle is 2(l + w), where l is the length and w is the width, the perimeter of this rectangle would be

2((y + 5) + y)

To simplify this, just add similar terms inside the parentheses and multiply them both by 2.

2(2y + 5)

4y + 10

a. To calculate the present value of investment A at a discount rate of 21 percent, we need to find the present value of each cash flow and then sum them up. The present value of each cash flow can be calculated using the formula PV = CF / (1 + r)^n, where PV is the present value, CF is the cash flow, r is the discount rate, and n is the number of years.

Using the given cash flows and the discount rate of 21 percent, we have:

PV = 11,000 / (1 + 0.21)^1 + 11,000 / (1 + 0.21)^2 + 11,000 / (1 + 0.21)^3 + 11,000 / (1 + 0.21)^4 + 11,000 / (1 + 0.21)^5 + 11,000 / (1 + 0.21)^6

Calculating this expression will give us the present value of investment A.

b. Similarly, to calculate the present value of investment B, we use the same formula and substitute the cash flows for investment B:

PV = 11,000 / (1 + 0.21)^1 + 11,000 / (1 + 0.21)^2 + 11,000 / (1 + 0.21)^3 + 11,000 / (1 + 0.21)^4

c. For investment C, we use the formula with the cash flows for investment C:

PV = 16,000 / (1 + 0.21)^1 + 48,000 / (1 + 0.21)^2

Calculating these expressions will give us the present values of investments B and C, respectively.

The present values of investments A, B, and C are $37,461.97, $29,930.99, and $48,003.16 respectively.

To calculate the present value of the cash flows from every investment, we use the present value of annuity formula: PV = C * [(1 - (1 + r)^-n ) / r], where PV is the present value, C is the constant cash flow per period, r is the discount rate, and n is the number of periods.

(a) Investment A: C = $11,000, r = 21% or 0.21, n = 6 years. PV = $11,000 * [(1 - (1 + 0.21)^-6) / 0.21] = $37,461.97.

(b) Investment B: C = $11,000, r = 21% or 0.21, n = 4 years. PV = $11,000 * [(1 - (1 + 0.21)^-4) / 0.21] = $29,930.99.

(c) Investment C has 2 cash flows: $16,000 at end of year 1 and $48,000 at end of year 3. We calculate their present value separately and sum those up. PV = $16,000 / (1 + 0.21)^1 + $48,000 / (1 + 0.21)^3 = $13,223.14 + $34,780.02 = $48,003.16.

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The Operating income is $172,500.

To calculate the margin of safety, contribution margin ratio, and operating income, we need to use the given information.

a. Margin of Safety:

Margin of Safety = Actual Sales - Break-even Sales

Given that the break-even point is at $750,000 in sales revenue and actual sales are $1,100,000, we can calculate the margin of safety:

Margin of Safety = $1,100,000 - $750,000 = $350,000

Therefore, the margin of safety is $350,000.

b. Margin of Safety as a Percentage of Sales:

Margin of Safety Percentage = (Margin of Safety / Actual Sales) * 100

Using the values from the previous calculations:

Margin of Safety Percentage = ($350,000 / $1,100,000) * 100 = 31.82%

Therefore, the margin of safety expressed as a percentage of sales is approximately 31.82%.

c. Contribution Margin Ratio:

Contribution Margin Ratio = (Contribution Margin / Sales) * 100

To calculate the contribution margin, we need to subtract variable costs from sales:

Contribution Margin = Sales - Variable Costs = $1,100,000 - $645,000 = $455,000

Using the values, we can calculate the contribution margin ratio:

Contribution Margin Ratio = ($455,000 / $1,100,000) * 100 = 41.36%

Therefore, the contribution margin ratio is approximately 41.36%.

d. Operating Income:

Operating Income = Sales - Variable Costs - Fixed Costs

Using the values provided:

Operating Income = $1,100,000 - $645,000 - $282,500 = $172,500

Therefore, the operating income is $172,500.

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The required surface area of the given rectangular prism is 202 square yd.

Here, we have,

Given that,

the surface area of a rectangular prism with a base length of 9 yd, a base width of 5 yd, and a height of 4 yd is to be determined.

We have,

Surface area is defined as the measure of a region or surface is called as surface area.

Here,

The surface area of the rectangular prism is given as,

S = 2(lw + lh + wh)

S = 2 [9×5 + 5×4 + 4×9]

S = 202 square yd.

Thus, the required surface area of the given rectangular prism is 202 square yd.

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Step-by-step explanation:

could you answer to my question

I'll need more than I need help in a picture to answer your question

please answer to this with what you need help with I am only seeing a question which I do not know and what I need to focus

thank you for cooperating - yuri

The required value of y for the given segment AB is given as y = 16, -8.

A line is a straight curve connecting two points or more showing the shortest distance between the initial and final points.

here,
A(0, 4), B(5, y), and AB = 13.

Applying the distance formula,
D = √[[x₂ - x₁]² + [y₂- y₁]²]

Substitue the value in the above expression,
13 = √[[5 - 0]² + [y - 4]²]
169 = 25 + [y - 4]²
[y - 4]² = 144
y - 4 = ± 12

y = 16, -8

Thus, the required value of y for the given segment AB is given as y = 16, -8.

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Answer:

The correct option is;

D. 30 and 40

Step-by-step explanation:

Here, we have that the rhombus is a quadrilateral with equal and parallel sides hence the length of the diagonals will be

2 × 25×sinθ  and 2 × 25× cosθ

Therefore tanθ = (2 × 25×sinθ)/(2 × 25× cosθ) = (sinθ)/(cosθ)

Therefore, the root of the sum squares of both diagonals = 50

Therefore, we analyze each of the options as follows

For A. we have √(22² + 40²) = 45.65 ≠ 50 therefore these are not the length of diagonals of the rhombus in question

For B. we have √(26² + 36²) = 44.41 ≠ 50 therefore these are not the length of diagonals of the rhombus in question

For C. we have √(26² + 48²) = 55.59 ≠ 50 therefore these are not the length of diagonals of the rhombus in question

For D. we have √(30² + 40²) = 50 therefore these are possible lengths of diagonals of the rhombus in question.

Answer:

15/ 16  

Step-by-step explanation: 3/2 x 5/8=  15/16

you flip 2/3 to 3/2 and multiply it

Answer:

10.97%

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 52 cards.

13 of them, are hearts.

Then

52 - 13 = 39 cards are not hearts.

4 cards are drawn, we want to find the percent chance that the fourth card is a heart card, but no before.

So the first card can't be a heart card.

because the deck is well-shuffled, all the cards have the same probability of being drawn.

Then the probability of not getting a heart card, is equal to the quotient between the number of non-heart cards (39) and the total number of cards (52), then the probability is:

p₁ = 39/52

The second card also can't be a heart card, the probability is calculated in the same way than above, but now there are 38 non-heart cards and a total of 51 cards (because one card was already drawn) then the probability here is:

p₂ = 38/51

For the third card the reasoning is similar to the two above cases, here the probability is:

p₃ = 37/50

The fourth card should be a hearts card, the probability is computed in the same way than above, as the quotient between the number of heart cards in the deck (13) and the total number of cards in the deck (now there are 49 cards)

then the probability is:

p₄ = 13/49

The joint probability (the probability of these 4 events happening together) is equal to the product between the individual probabilities:

P = p₁*p₂*p₃*p₄

P = (39/52)*(38/51)*(37/50)*(13/49) = 0.1097

The percent chance is the above number times 100%

Percent =  0.1097*100% = 10.97%

                                                   uh i could never, sorry

Answer:   It is 217

360-(114+29)=217

114 + 29 = 143

Step-by-step explanation: Srry if its wrong

Answer:

the two figures are congruent

Step-by-step explanation:

if you translate figure ABCD down by one, and to the right by three, and reflect it, you will see that the figures are congruent

Answer:

31

Step-by-step explanation:

you just add for to 27