Electronic health records (EHRs) have recently been introduced in a healthcare organization, and the steering committee is ensuring that the system meets the criteria for meaningful use. This characteristic of the EHR means that the system can be used to exchange clinical data between EHRs and can be used to collect and report on quality measures.
Electronic health records (EHRs) are digital versions of a patient's medical records that allow medical practitioners to access, update, and exchange patient health information rapidly and securely. Electronic health records can be accessed by authorized people and can be updated in real-time, ensuring that medical practitioners always have access to up-to-date patient information.
The meaningful use criteria are a set of standards for electronic health records (EHRs) that were established by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) to promote the use of EHRs to improve healthcare delivery and patient outcomes. The meaningful use criteria specify the minimum requirements for using EHRs to qualify for financial incentives for healthcare providers, such as doctors and hospitals.
The characteristics of an EHR that meets the meaningful use criteria are as follows:
The EHR must be capable of recording patient information in a structured format.
The EHR must be capable of exchanging clinical data between EHRs.
The EHR must be capable of collecting and reporting on quality measures.
The EHR must be capable of being used to improve patient safety.
The EHR must be capable of being used to improve clinical outcomes.
The EHR must be capable of being used to improve population health.
The EHR must be capable of being used to protect the privacy and security of patient information.
Hence, This characteristic of the EHR means that the system can be used to exchange clinical data between EHRs and can be used to collect and report on quality measures.
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How many superficial muscles are on the anterior view of the body?
the nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an 8-month-old infant. which site would the nurse select?
The site should be on the Vastus lateralis.
The quadriceps femoris, a muscle in the thigh, has several parts, the biggest and most potent of which is the vastus lateralis, also known as the vastus externus. It helps move the lower leg forward by extending the knee joint in conjunction with other quadriceps muscles.
The vastus lateralis muscle is the most popular injection location in young children. The rectus femoris is another potential location. Children are not implanted in the dorsogluteal location until they have been walking for at least a year. After the age of 4 or 5, the deltoid muscle is employed as a site in youngsters.
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A physician orders phenobarbital 120 mg three times a day for a patient with seizures. 60 mg tablets are available. How many tablets are needed for a one-month supply?
Answer:
180 tabs in a one-month (30-day) supply
Explanation:
120 mg q 3x daily equals 360 mg per day
If they come in 60 mg tablets, then 360 / 60 = 6, the patient will take 6 tabs daily.
If there are 30 days in a month, then 30 x 6 = 180, 180 tablets are needed for the one-month supply.
For months with 31 days, you will need 186 tabs. For the month of February with 28 days, 168. If it's a leap year and the month of February has 29 days, 174.
Choose the answer.
Which resource can be used to help spell, pronounce, and define medical terms?
Hippocratic dictionary
Hippocratic thesaurus
medical dictionary
medical thesaurus
Answer:
medical dictionary
Explanation:
The resource that can be used to help spell, pronounce, and define medical terms is the medical dictionary.
The medical dictionary contains the lexicon of words that medical practitioners or students use. When there's a medical terms that a person doesn't understand, the medical dictionary can help the student as it gives the meaning of the term.In conclusion, the best option is C.
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How To Code Lower Extremity Weakness ICD 10?
There are various codes for lower extremity weakness for example, ICD-10-CM Diagnosis Code M62. 562 is the code for muscle atrophy and wasting in the lower left leg.
Medical coding is basically a transformation of the healthcare diagnosis, medical services, procedures, as well as equipment into universal medical alphanumeric codes. These diagnoses as well as procedure codes are taken from the medical record documentation, which include the transcription of the physician's notes, laboratory as well as radiologic results, etc.
Medical coding professionals help in ensuring that these codes are applied correctly at the time of the medical billing process. The code for lower extremity weakness is ICD-10-CM Diagnosis Code M62. 562 which is basically the code for muscle atrophy and wasting in the lower left leg.
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OK KNOW IM GIVVING A BUNCH OF POINTS WITH NO MISTAKES!!!
Answer:
thx bro ur nice...........
:O thank you! Have a GREAT rest of your day!
disruption of a joint in which ligaments are damaged and the bone ends are no longer in tact is known as what? a. Dislocation b. Fracture c. Sprain d. Strain
Disruption of a joint in which ligaments are damaged and the bone ends are no longer intact is known as a dislocation. option a is correct option.
A dislocation is a joint injury that occurs when the bone ends that form the joint are forced out of their normal position. This disruption can be caused by a variety of factors, such as trauma, falls, sports injuries, or repetitive strain. When the bones are displaced, the surrounding ligaments, tendons, and muscles can be stretched, torn, or sprained, leading to pain, swelling, and instability in the affected joint. Dislocations most commonly occur in the shoulder, hip, knee, and finger joints. Treatment for a dislocation typically involves reducing the joint to its normal position, immobilizing the joint with a cast or brace, and engaging in physical therapy to help restore range of motion and strength.
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Read each of the structures or characteristics below. Then, click and drag each into the appropriate category to determine whether it describes a primary sex organ, secondary sex organ, or secondary sex characteristic.
Ethical Principles From the case study provided: a) Identify the meaning of a fragility hip fracture and the impact this can have on an elderly person. b) Describe the specific situation in this case study. c) Using the Framework of Ethical Decision Making (Corey et al., 2014) d) Identify the problem or dilemma Describe the potential issues involved f) Review relevant ethics principles as they apply to this case (eg; informed consent, confidentiality, beneficence, etc. g) Consider possible and probable courses of action h) Describe the consequences of various decisions i) What is the best course of action? Provide a reflection of your learning with this case study. What did you learn? How will you apply this learning in the future? 1 Assignment #2 Ethical Principles From the case study provided: a) Identify the meaning of a fragility hip fracture and the impact this can have on an elderly person. b) Describe the specific situation in this case study. c) Using the Framework of Ethical Decision Making (Corey et al., 2014) d) Identify the problem or dilemma Describe the potential issues involved f) Review relevant ethics principles as they apply to this case (eg; informed consent, confidentiality, beneficence, etc. g) Consider possible and probable courses of action h) Describe the consequences of various decisions i) What is the best course of action? Provide a reflection of your learning with this case study. What did you learn? How will you apply this learning in the future?
a) A fragility hip fracture is a broken hip bone resulting from minimal trauma or a fall in the elderly person which leads to pain, mobility loss, and reduced independence.
b) The specific situation in the given case study involves an elderly individual experiencing a fragility hip fracture and being admitted to the hospital for treatment. The fracture caused severe pain, limited mobility, and required surgery. A person's independence and quality of life are severely compromised and require support and rehabilitation to restore function.
c) Using the Framework of Ethical Decision Making, the problem or dilemma is how to address the treatment and care of the elderly patient with a fragility hip fracture.
d) The potential issues involved in this scenario includes ensuring informed consent, maintaining patient confidentiality, promoting beneficence, and balancing autonomy with the patient's best interests.
f) Relevant ethics principles include informed consent, confidentiality, beneficence (doing good for the patient), and autonomy.
g) Possible courses of action may include surgical intervention, pain management, rehabilitation, and ensuring proper support and care for the patient.
h) Consequences of decisions can vary which includes successful recovery, complications, functional limitations, and impact on the patient's quality of life.
i) The best course of action depends on individual circumstances, but it may involve a comprehensive treatment plan that considers the patient's preferences, involves shared decision-making, and prioritizes their overall well-being.
Reflection: This case studies highlight the importance of considering ethical principles in medical decision-making, especially when dealing with vulnerable populations such as the elderly. It stresses the importance of informed consent, confidentiality and the promotion of the patient's best interests.
We learnt the significance of considering individual values and preferences, as well as involving the person and their support system in decision-making. In the future, we can apply this learning by ensuring a patient-centered approach, promoting open communication, and advocating for the well-being and autonomy of individuals in my healthcare practice.
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30 ounces of medicine is needed to prepared by the caregiver however he/she only has a tablespoon to usee for measuring. how many tablespoons of medicine?
Answer: 60 tablespoons
Explanation:
One tablespoon is equivalent to 0.5 fluid ounces. Therefore, we can use the following conversion factor:
1 tablespoon = 0.5 fluid ounces
To find out how many tablespoons of medicine are needed to make 30 ounces, we can set up a proportion:
1 tablespoon / 0.5 fluid ounces = x tablespoons / 30 fluid ounces
where x is the number of tablespoons needed.
To solve for x, we can cross-multiply and simplify:
1 * 30 = 0.5 * x
30 = 0.5x
x = 30 / 0.5
x = 60
Therefore, the caregiver will need 60 tablespoons of medicine to prepare 30 ounces using only a tablespoon for measuring.
what are some key elements of the social model of
care?
Explanation:
1. know your loved one or client:Be aware of their lives preference and desire
2. Communicate for success
The social model of care focuses on addressing systemic barriers and promoting a society that values diversity, inclusion, and social justice. It aims to empower individuals and promote their rights, dignity, and quality of life within their social context.
Some key elements of the social model of care include:
Social inclusion: Fostering a sense of belonging and actively including individuals in all aspects of society, irrespective of their abilities or disabilities. This involves promoting equal opportunities and challenging discrimination and social barriers.Person-centered approach: Placing the person at the center of care, acknowledging their autonomy, preferences, and choices. It emphasizes the importance of involving individuals in decision-making processes and tailoring care to their specific needs and goals.Collaboration and participation: Encouraging active involvement and collaboration between individuals, their families, caregivers, and the wider community. It recognizes the value of collective efforts and partnerships in providing holistic care and support.Access to support services and resources: Ensuring equitable access to necessary support services, resources, and accommodations. This includes physical accessibility, assistive technologies, communication aids, and appropriate healthcare and rehabilitation services.Social and environmental factors: Recognizing the impact of social, cultural, and environmental factors on individuals' well-being. This includes addressing social determinants of health, promoting social cohesion, and creating inclusive environments that enable individuals to fully participate in society.To know more about social cohesion
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Help with a reflection piece on adult safeguarding in the United Kingdom
Adult safeguarding is the process of protecting adults who are at risk of abuse or neglect. Abuse can happen to anyone, regardless of age, gender, race, or social status.
What is adult safeguarding about?There are many different types of adult abuse, including physical abuse, emotional abuse, financial abuse, and sexual abuse. Physical abuse is any act that causes physical harm to an adult. Emotional abuse is any act that causes emotional harm to an adult, such as threats, insults, or isolation. Financial abuse is any act that takes advantage of an adult's financial resources, such as stealing money or property. Sexual abuse is any sexual act that is forced or unwanted.
In the United Kingdom, adult safeguarding is the responsibility of a number of different agencies, including local authorities, the NHS, and the police. These agencies work together to identify and protect adults who are at risk of abuse.
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Mr. Ryder is on a low-salt diet of 1500 mg or less per day. His consumption of salt for today so far is 800 mg. He would like to have an after-dinner snack. Based on the nutrition label, how much can Mr. Ryder consume without going over his daily salt intake?
Answer:
The patient could take a snack that contains 700 mg of sodium as a cap.
Explanation:
For this, you should bear in mind that the label on the back of the refrigerant must say how much sodium you have and what type of diet those values are based on, as some products are generally based on high sodium diets.
On the contrary, if this patient consumes more sodium than he can consume daily, he may suffer from fluid retention or heart or kidney conditions.
Select the correct answer.
How do nurse aides communicate their clients' condition with the doctor who is treating the clients?
A. using the clients' charts
B. by calling the doctor up
C. explaining nonverbally
D. asking the clients to explain
Common behaviors that are a result of Alzheimer's disease are
Answer:
angry outbursts and physical aggression, hand wringing pacing and rocking, accusing loved ones of wrong doing and hallucinating, repeating stories and leaving the house unassisted, sleep problems and sundowing
Explanation:
1, Verbal or physical aggression, which can be quite alarming, is common in patients with Alzheimer’s.
2, Dementia makes it very difficult to process stimuli and new information, causing many people with Alzheimer’s disease to become anxious.
3, Caregivers may feel at a loss when an Alzheimer’s patient exhibits behavior that is clearly not grounded in reality: either hallucinations—perceiving something that isn’t really there—or delusions, which are false beliefs that can lead to paranoia.
4, The memory problems caused by Alzheimer’s disease can lead to a range of distressing behaviors, including repetition of words or activities, disorientation even in familiar places, and, in severe cases, confusion about the passage of time.
5, It’s not well understood why sleep disturbances occur in many Alzheimer’s patients, but it’s common for them to experience nighttime restlessness and changes to their sleep schedule.
If the physician tested for automated CBC and automated differential wbc count, hepatitis b surface antigen (HbsAg),rubella antibody, qualitative syphilis test, RBC antibody screening, ABO blood typing and Rh (D) blood typing, what will you code
Answer:
Obstetric panel
Explanation:
The obstetric panel has a test code of 20210 with CPT codes of 80055 which includes a Complete Blood Count with White Blood Cell Differential Count, Hepatitis B Surface Antigen, RPR Screen/Reflex Titer/FTA, Rubella Immunity (IgG), and Type/Rh/Antibody Screen (Prenatal).
Paolo has suffered a major bleeding wound and is near death his blood pressure
(a) will not significantly change
(b) will be lower than average
(c) will be higher than average
(d) will flucate wildly between high and low as he bleeds out
Since Paolo has suffered a major bleeding wound and is near death his blood pressure is option (b) will be lower than average.
Does hemorrhage cause blood pressure to rise or fall?When there is a significant amount of blood loss, arterial pressure falls rapidly, which is followed by a sequence of cardiovascular responses intended to try to raise arterial pressure back to normal and maintain perfusion to vital organs.
A moderate amount of sudden blood loss lowers blood pressure, which is somewhat offset by a baroreceptor-mediated increase in heart rate and vasoconstriction.
Therefore, your body will react traumatically when blood loss approaches 30 to 40% of total blood volume. Your heart rate will increase and your blood pressure will fall even lower. You might exhibit overt signs of bewilderment or disorientation. Your breathing will become shallower and faster.
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Answer: B-Will be lower then average
Explanation:
yeet
beta blockers are a class of drugs used to regulate heart rate what effect would a b blocker have on blood pressure
Answer: The blood pressure would be lowered due to B blockers causing the heart to beat more slowly.
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you are completing a medication list before a comprehensive medical review appointment for mrs. black. you notice that she takes vitamin e. vitamin e is also known as:
Vitamin E is also known as tocopherol, an essential nutrient that acts as an antioxidant in the body. It is commonly found in various food sources and is available as a supplement.
Vitamin E, or tocopherol, is a fat-soluble vitamin that plays a crucial role in maintaining the health of cells and protecting them from damage caused by free radicals. It exists in several different forms, including alpha-tocopherol, which is the most biologically active form.
Vitamin E is found naturally in various foods such as nuts, seeds, vegetable oils, and leafy green vegetables. It is also available as a dietary supplement in the form of capsules or tablets. Many people take vitamin E supplements for its potential benefits in promoting skin health, supporting the immune system, and reducing the risk of certain chronic diseases. However, it is important to consult with a healthcare professional before starting any new supplement to ensure it is appropriate and safe for an individual's specific health needs.
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The last korotkoff sound occurs when the blood pressure is equal to:_________
The last Korotkoff sound occurs when the blood pressure is equal to the diastolic pressure.
Korotkoff sounds refer to the sounds that health care providers hear through the stethoscope when they measure blood pressure manually. When blood flow through the arteries is restricted, Korotkoff sounds occur.
The brachial artery of the arm is the most frequent site for measuring blood pressure by this method.
Blood pressure is the force with which blood flows through the blood vessels. It is measured in millimeters of mercury (mm Hg) and given as two numbers, the systolic and diastolic pressures.
The systolic pressure, or the first number, indicates the force at which the heart beats and pushes blood through the arteries.
The diastolic pressure, or the second number, indicates the force at which the heart rests between beats. The ideal blood pressure for an adult is 120/80 mm Hg.
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According to the uid-mosaic model of the plasma membrane Select one: a. Phospholipids form a double layer, with the hydrophilic heads facing each other in the center. B. The membrane is a rigid structure. c. Proteins are free to move within a double layer of phospholipids. d. Protein and phospholipids form a regular, repeating structure.
Answer:
c. Proteins are free to move within a double layer of phospholipids.
Explanation:
According to the fluid mosaic model, proteins and phospholipids can move laterally and rotate in their place. This is one of the characteristics of the fluid mosaic model. The fluidity of the membrane's components depends on factors such as temperature, the presence of cholesterol, and if the fatty acid chains of the phospholipids are saturated or not.
An anomaly is a deviation from what is regarded as normal. true or false
The statement "an anomaly is a deviation from what is regarded as normal" is true.
An anomaly can be described as something that deviates from the established or expected pattern or norm. It represents an irregularity or abnormality that stands out from the majority or standard. In various contexts, anomalies can occur in different areas such as science, statistics, and human development.
In scientific research, scientists often encounter unexpected results or observations that do not conform to the prevailing theories or hypotheses. These anomalies can lead to new discoveries, revised theories, and further investigation to understand the underlying mechanisms.In statistics, anomalies can arise due to measurement errors, outliers, or underlying factors not accounted for in the analysis. Detecting and analyzing anomalies in data can provide valuable insights, identify data quality issues, and help make informed decisions.In human development and biology, anomalies refer to deviations from the typical developmental processes or structures. For example, a congenital anomaly or birth defect is a physical or structural abnormality present at birth. These anomalies can affect various body systems and may have a genetic, environmental, or multifactorial origin.Learn more about anomaly here: https://brainly.com/question/29774686
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16. These structures keep the atrioventricular valves
from flipping back into the atria.
a. Chordae tendineae
b. Myocardial septa
c. Purkinje fibers
d. Semilunar cusps
Answer:
The structures that prevent the atrioventricular valves from reopening into the atria are called chordae tendineae (option a).
Explanation:
Tendinous cords, or chordae tendineae, are structures in the form of fibrous filaments that connect the atrioventricular valves to the papillary muscles of the ventricles.
The function of the chordae tendineae is to prevent the mitral and tricuspid valves from opening during ventricular contraction, preventing backflow of blood from the ventricles to the atria.
The chordae tendineae are predominantly made up of collagen and elastin, in addition to a small percentage of endothelium.
The other options are not correct because:
b. Myocardial septa is the division between the right and left ventricles.
c. Purkinje fibers are fibers that transmit the nerve impulse that allows ventricular contraction.
d. Semilunar cusps, correspond to the shape of the closed semilunar valves.
Which of the following is an extension of the parietal peritoneum?
A.) Greater omentum
B.) Lesser omentum
C.) Falciform ligament
D.) All of the above
Answer:
c
Explanation:
Answer:
D) all of the above.
Explanation:
they are all extensions of the parietal peritoneum
Malcolm still remembers vivid details about the day of the terrorist attacks on 9/11. What almond-shaped brain structure is responsible for this phenomenon of connecting memories and strong emotions in such emotionally charged events?.
Answer: The amygdala
Explanation: The amygdala is almond-shaped and is involved in memory-making and emotional responses.
Cautions or contraindications for both loop diuretics and thiazide diuretics are similar, and include all of the following EXCEPT _____.
Cautions or contraindications for both loop diuretics and thiazide diuretics are similar, and include all of the following except hypertension.
The loop diuretics are extremely protein bound and so enter the tube primarily by secretion within the proximal tube, instead of by capillary vessel filtration. The foremost usually used loop diuretics are diuretic, bumetanide, and torsemide, that are antibacterial derivatives.
Thiazide diuretics are counseled joined of the primary drug treatments for the high blood pressure. If diuretics are not enough to lower your blood pressure, your doctor may add different blood pressure medications to your treatment arrange.
Hypertension is a heavy medical condition that considerably will increase the risks of heart, brain, excretory organ and alternative diseases.
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a 72-year-old man with a history of chronic tobacco use presents to clinic with a complaint of increasing dyspnea while walking to his mailbox. physical examination reveals decreased breath sounds, hyperresonance to percussion, and a barrel chest. a chest x-ray is obtained that demonstrates hyperinflation with flattened diaphragms. what is the most likely diagnosis?
3. Which abbreviation stands for a type of blood collection vacuum tube?
The abbreviation EDTA stands for a type of blood collection vacuum tube.
What is EDTA?EDTA is a chelating agent that binds to calcium ions, which prevents the blood from clotting. This allows the blood to be collected and transported without clotting, which is important for many laboratory tests.
EDTA is the most common type of blood collection tube used in clinical laboratories. It is used to collect blood for a variety of tests, including complete blood counts, chemistry tests, and blood cultures.
EDTA blood collection tubes are typically lavender in color. They are labeled with the abbreviation "EDTA" and the volume of blood that is required for the test.
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Prefixes, Roots, and Suffixes
Identifying Prefixes
Which of these word parts are examples of prefixes?
a. artho
b. inter-
c. -iosis
d. tensi
e. -oma
f. tri-
g. poly-
Answer:
B. Inter-
F. Tri-
G. Poly-
Explanation:
I calculated it logically
-¿Qué son los músculos Isquiotibiales ? -Origen -Inserción -Antagonista -Sinergista -Dibujar los músculos y poner sus nombres. -¿Cuáles son las funciones de los músculos isquiotibiales?
Respuesta y explicación:
Los músculos isquiotibiales son un grupo de músculos ubicados en el compartimento posterior del muslo, que reciben su nombre debido a su inserción proximal en el isquion del hueso coxal y su inserción distal en la tibia. Los músculos isquiotibiales son: el semitendinoso, el semimembranoso, y el bíceps femoral (aunque solo su cabeza larga se inserta en el hueso coxal).
Tienen un rol muy importante en la extensión del muslo sobre la cadera y también en la flexión de la pierna sobre el muslo cuando el sujeto se encuentra de pie.
Los músculos isquiotibiales tienen como antagonista al cuádriceps femoral, que se encuentra en el compartimiento anterior del muslo y se encarga de la flexión del muslo sobre la cadera y de la extensión de la pierna sobre el muslo. El antagonista se opone al músculo agonista (el que realiza el movimiento).
El sinergista es aquel que facilita el movimiento del agonista, en este caso, los músculos sinergistas son el gastrocnemio, el sartorio, el poplíteo y el grácil.
El músculo semitendinoso se origina en la tuberosidad isquiática y se inserta en la superficie medial del extremo superior de la tibia.
El músculo semimembranoso se origina en la tuberosidad isquiática y se inserta en el cóndilo medial de la tibia.
La cabeza larga del músculo bíceps femoral también se origina en la tuberosidad isquiática, mientras que la cabeza corta se origina en la línea áspera del fémur; y se inserta en el extremo superior del peroné.