The minimum size of the DC-side capacitor of a Current Source Converter (CSC) connected to a 50 Hz system required to enable fault-ride-through capability for at least half a cycle is 16.67 mF.
A current source converter (CSC) is a device used for high-power electric energy conversion. It is based on a controllable current source in series with an energy-storage capacitor that provides a constant voltage.
The minimum size of the DC-side capacitor of a Current Source Converter (CSC) connected to a 50 Hz system required to enable fault-ride-through capability for at least half a cycle can be determined as follows:
Given: Rated power of the converter is 1 MWThe rated DC voltage is 0.8 kVThe minimum working voltage is 0.6 kV.
We know that the energy stored in the DC capacitor is given as E = 1/2 * C * V^2 where C = capacitance in FaradsV = voltage in volts
E = energy in joulesTo determine the minimum size of the DC-side capacitor, we need to compute the energy required to supply the rated power for half a cycle.
Energy supplied in half cycle = 1/2 * P * T where,P = rated power T = time period = 1/2*50 Hz = 0.01 s
The energy supplied in half cycle = 1/2 * 1 MW * 0.01 s = 5 kJ
Now, we can calculate the minimum capacitance required as C = 2*E/V^2
C = 2*5,000 / (0.6^2 - 0.8^2)
C = 16,666.67 µF or 16.67 mF
Therefore, the minimum size of the DC-side capacitor of a Current Source Converter (CSC) connected to a 50 Hz system required to enable fault-ride-through capability for at least half a cycle is 16.67 mF.
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the compressive force on a 1/2 - 0.5 lead screw is 26 lbf. determine the axial compressive stress in psi?
Answer:
Normal Stress = 200 units / Area of the tube face
hope this helps:)
Explanation:
a skilled technician with several years of experience who is employed to oversee the operation of a company or maintenance department is a
Answer:
business operation Manager
_____________ processes are actions that create physical solutions to problems.
a
Production Processes
b
Medical Processes
c
Agricultural Processes
d
Communication Process
Answer:
yes answer d is correct
Communication Process are actions that create physical solutions to problems. The correct option is d.
What is Communication Process?Human existence and organisational survival both depend on effective communication. It is a process of generating and disseminating thoughts, facts, opinions, and sentiments from one place, individual, or group to another. The Management function of Directing depends on effective communication.
The sending party, message encoding, channel selection, message receipt by the recipient, and message decoding are all aspects of the communication process.
Feedback is when the recipient communicates something back to the original sender. These procedures are actions that result in tangible fixes for issues.
Thus, the correct option is d.
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Help, quick please. I need help with my engineering word problem
Answer:
a
Explanation:
The extraction of oil from groundnut paste with hexane is shown as a single stage operation as follows:
Suppose that the feed composition is 36% oil and 64% inert solids and that pure hexane is to be used in the extraction. In one trial, 3 kg of hexane was used per kg of feed. The composition of the extract was 32% oil and no inert solid. It is also known that each kg of inert solids retains 1.8 kg of solution. Represent the following compositions on a right-angled diagram:
(a) The feed
(b) The extract
(c) Underflow (raffinate)
(d) The initial mixture of feed and the solvent
The diagram for the extraction to represent the information given is attached.
What is extraction?Extraction refers to the process of obtaining or removing something from a particular source or location. It can refer to various fields such as chemistry, physics, medicine, and data analysis.
In chemistry, extraction is the process of separating a particular component or substance from a mixture using various methods such as solvent extraction, distillation, or chromatography. In physics, extraction can refer to the removal of energy or particles from a system. In medicine, extraction refers to the removal of a tooth or a foreign object from the body. In data analysis, extraction refers to the process of retrieving specific data or information from a large set of data.
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Medium grains are those that are between ________ mm in size. A) 1/16 to 2 B) 2 to 4 C) 1/128 to 1/64 D) 1/64 to 1/16
Medium grains are those that are between 1/64 to 1/16 mm in size. The correct answer is option D.
Medium grains, in the context of particle size classification, refer to particles that fall within a specific size range. The size range for medium grains is between 1/64 to 1/16 mm.
To understand this size range, it helps to know that particle sizes are often measured in terms of fractions or decimal equivalents of an inch. In this case, the fractions 1/64 and 1/16 represent specific divisions of an inch.
1/64 inch is a smaller fraction than 1/16 inch. It means that the size of the particles falling within the medium grain range is larger than particles in the fine grain range (which would be smaller than 1/64 inch) but smaller than particles in the coarse grain range (which would be larger than 1/16 inch).
So, when it is stated that medium grains are between 1/64 to 1/16 mm in size, it means that the particles within this range have sizes larger than 1/64 inch but smaller than 1/16 inch.
It's important to note that particle size classification can vary depending on the specific industry or application. Different classification systems might use different size ranges and units of measurement.
Therefore option D is correct.
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All of these are part of the seat belt assembly EXCEPT the:
O latch plate
O D-ring
O retractor.
O cushion
Suppose that, with probability 1, the sequence (Xn)n∈N oscillates
between two values a =6 b infinitely often. Is this enough to
prove that (Xn)n∈N does not converge almost surely? Justify your
answer.
As a result, (Xn)nN cannot virtually certainly converge if it alternates between the values of a and b with probability 1.
Certainly, this is sufficient evidence to disprove the nearly certain convergence of (Xn)nN. This is because if a sequence converges almost surely, then it must also converge in probability, which in turn implies that it has a unique limit almost surely. Therefore, the sequence (Xn)nN cannot have a unique limit almost certainly if it oscillates between the two values a and b infinitely frequently with probability 1, as there will always be some subsequence of the sequence that converges to a and another subsequence that converges to b. As a result, (Xn)nN cannot virtually certainly converge if it alternates between the values of a and b with probability 1.
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Air expands through a turbine from 8 bar, 960 K to 1 bar, 450 K. The inlet velocity is small compared to the exit velocity of 90 m/s. The turbine operates at steady state and develops a power output of 2500 kW. Heat transfer between the turbine and its surroundings and potential energy effects are negligible. Modeling air as an ideal gas, calculate the mass flow rate of air and the exit area.
This question is incomplete, the missing diagram is uploaded along this answer below.
Answer:
- The mass flow rate of air is 4.59 kg/s
- Area of the exit turbine is 0.066 m²
Explanation:
Given the data in the question;
Using air as an ideal gas.
Turbine;
state 1: p₁ = 8 bar, T₁ = 960 K
state 2: p₂ = 1 bar, T₂ = 450 K
The inlet velocity is small compared to the exit velocity of 90 m/s
V₁ < V₂ = 90 m/s
Power of turbine W' = 2500 kW
Now, lets assume Q = 0 and ΔPE = 0
we know that; R = 0.2870 kJ/kg-K
Also. \(C_p\) at 700K = 1.075 kJ/kg-K
Now, using ideal gas law;
STATE1
v₁ = RT₁/p₁
so we substitute
v₁ = [(0.2870 kJ/kg-K)(960 K)/(8 bars )]|\(\frac{bar}{10^5N/m^2}\)||\(\frac{1000N.m}{kJ}\)| = 0.344 m³/kg
STATE2
v₂ = RT₂/p₁
we substitute
v₂ = [(0.2870 kJ/kg-K)(450 K)/(1 bars )]|\(\frac{bar}{10^5N/m^2}\)||\(\frac{1000N.m}{kJ}\)| = 1.2915 m³/kg
Now, from energy balance steady state;
0 = Q" - W" + \(m"_i\)( \(h_i\) + \(\frac{V_i^2}{2}\) + \(gz_i\)) - \(m"_B\)( \(h_B\) + \(\frac{V_B^2}{2}\) + \(gz_B\))
since we initially assume Q = 0 and ΔPE = 0
hence;
0 = \(-\frac{W"}{m"}\) + h₁ + \(\frac{V_1^2}{2}\) - h₂ + \(\frac{V_2^2}{2}\)
\(\frac{W"}{m"}\) = h₁ + \(\frac{V_1^2}{2}\) - h₂ + \(\frac{V_2^2}{2}\)
⇒ \(\frac{W"}{m"}\) = \(C_p\)(T₁ - T₂) + \(\frac{1}{2}\)( V₁² - V₂²)
we solve for m"
m" = W" / (\(C_p\)(T₁ - T₂) + \(\frac{1}{2}\)( V₁² - V₂²))
so we substitute;
m" = {[2500 kW] / [(1.075kJ/kg-K(960K - 450k) + \(\frac{1}{2}\)( (0)² - (90 m/s)²)) |kJ/1000N.m| |N/kg.m/s²|]} | kJ/s / kW|
m" = 4.59 kg/s
Therefore, the mass flow rate of air is 4.59 kg/s
From the mass body steady state;
0 = m"₁ - m"₂
so
m"₁ = m"₂ = 4.59 kg/s
now, the volumetric flow rate V"₂ will be;
V"₂ = m" × v₂
we substitute
V"₂ = 4.59 kg/s × 1.2915 m³/kg = 5.93 m³/s
and
the volumetric flow rate V"₂ = A₂V₂
so;
Exit Area A = V"₂ / V₂
we substitute
A = (5.93 m³/s ) / (90 m/s)
A = 0.06589 ≈ 0.066 m²
Therefore, Area of the exit turbine is 0.066 m²
Knowing that the central portion of the link BD has a uniform cross-sectional area of 800 2, determine the magnitude of the load P for which the normal stress in that portion of BD is 50 .
Answer: 50
Explanation:
Which part of a machine control unit interacts with the machine tools through electric signals?=]
A machine control unit is the electronic hardware that stores information and controls the machine tools. This unit contains a data processing unit that stores and manipulates data, and a ___________ that interacts with the machine tools through electrical signals.
Answer:
control loop unit
Explanation:
Edmentum/Plato
What hammer has a textured striking surface to create patterns in masonry?
A brick hammer has a textured striking surface to create patterns in masonry.It typically has a chisel-shaped head with a flat striking surface on one end and a pointed tip on the other end.
The textured surface, also called a "boss", is located on the opposite end of the hammer head from the chisel edge.
This feature allows bricklayers and masons to create decorative patterns in bricks and other types of masonry by striking the surface with the textured end of the hammer.
The chisel edge is used for cutting and shaping bricks and other masonry materials.
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Which of the following establishes the minimum level of training for inspectors and code officials and defines the certificationA. Local utility agencyB. Insurance companyC. Authority having jurisdictionD. Non-government organization
The option that establishes the minimum level of training for inspectors and code officials and defines the certification is Authority having jurisdiction.
Authority having jurisdiction (AHJ) is the organization responsible for enforcing building codes, standards, and regulations in a specific area. AHJs establish the minimum level of training for inspectors and code officials to ensure that they have the necessary knowledge and skills to carry out their duties effectively.
This includes setting certification requirements to maintain a consistent standard of professionalism and expertise among these professionals. Local utility agencies, insurance companies, and non-government organizations may be involved in various aspects of the construction process, but they do not hold the authority to define the training and certification requirements for inspectors and code officials.
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Tech A says that electromotive force is also known as voltage. Tech B says that when electrons flow in
one direction only, this is DC. Who is correct?
ту
O Tech A
O Tech B
O Both A and B
Neither A nor B
Answer:
neither
Explanation:
yeah
letters from satisfied customers are ineffective strategic selling materials.
Letters from satisfied customers can be highly effective strategic selling materials.
Testimonials and positive reviews from satisfied customers serve as social proof and can significantly influence potential buyers' purchasing decisions. These letters provide real-life examples of the positive experiences and benefits that customers have gained from using a product or service. They help build trust, credibility, and confidence in the brand, as they showcase the value and satisfaction that others have derived. By highlighting the positive outcomes and customer satisfaction, these letters create a persuasive narrative that can sway potential customers towards making a purchase. Therefore, letters from satisfied customers can be valuable assets in strategic selling efforts.
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The Keystone Pipeline has an inside diameter of 36 inches and carries a flow rate of 590,000 barrels of crude oil per day at 40 degree C. If the pipe is new, non-corroded steel, estimate the pump horsepower required per mile of pipe. Use rho = 1.67 slug/ft^3 and H = 1.11 times 10^-5 slug/ft*sec for the oil. This pipeline is in a cold environment, does it make sense that the oil is so warm?
The pump horsepower required per mile of pipe is approximately 68.3 times the pump efficiency.
To estimate the pump horsepower required per mile of pipe, we can use the following formula:
P = Q * rho * H * L / (3960 * eff)
Where P is the pump horsepower, Q is the flow rate in barrels per day, rho is the density of the oil, H is the viscosity of the oil, L is the length of the pipe in feet, and eff is the pump efficiency.
Plugging in the given values, we get:
P = 590,000 * 1.67 * 1.11e-5 * 5280 / (3960 * eff)
P = 68.3 * eff
Therefore, the pump horsepower required per mile of pipe is approximately 68.3 times the pump efficiency.
As for the second part of the question, it is not unusual for crude oil to be transported at elevated temperatures to reduce its viscosity and make it easier to pump. However, given that the Keystone Pipeline is located in a cold environment, it is likely that the oil is cooled before it is delivered to its destination.
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Answer every question of this quiz
Please note: you can answer each question only once.
Which number shows the intake valve?
OK
I'd say number 4, number 3 looks like an exhaust valve
what is the appropriate superelevation rate for a curve with a 1,200-ft radius on highway with a design speed of 60 mi/h?
A curve should superelevate at a rate of 6%.A 10% maximum superelevation has been advised for highways with hills that are not snow-bound.
How much super elevation can you get in total?Taking into account this mixed traffic, the IRC set a 7.0% or 0.07 maximum limit of superelevation on plain and rolling terrains and in snow-covered areas. A 10% maximum superelevation has been advised for highways with hills that are not snow-bound.By dividing the distance between the normal crown and full super by the transition length, one may calculate the rate of change in superelevation. 1,2000 - 60 = 11,940 Similar to the transition at the curve's beginning end, the rate of change is constant.To learn more about Superelevation refer to:
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An engine manufacturer wants to develop a gasoline engine that produces 300 hP at 6000 rpm. They can achieve 10 bar BMEP at peak power with a naturally aspirated engine, and 20bar BMEP with a turbocharged engine. Most modern light-duty engines have displacements of ~0.5L per cylinder. Determine the displacement and minimum number of cylinders (rounded to nearest whole number) required to meet these specs for: a. A naturally aspirated engine. b. A turbocharged engine.
Answer:
a). 5 cylinders
b). 3 cylinders
Explanation:
To develop a gasoline engine that produces
Power, P = 300 hp
= 300 x 746 = 223710 watt
at speed, N = 600 rpm = 100 rps
and stroke volume \($V_s=0.5$\) L
= \($0.5 \times 10^{-3}\ m^3$\)
a). A naturally aspirated engine
BMEP at peak power = 10 bar
= \($10 \times 10^5\ N/m^2$\)
Suction volume, V = \($V_s \times N$\)
= \($0.5 \times 10^{-3} \times 100 = 0.05\ m^3/s$\)
Power produced in one engine cylinder , p = BMEP x V
= \($10 \times 10^5 \times 0.05$\)
= 50000 watts
No. of cylinders required, n = \($\frac{P}{p}$\)
= \($\frac{223710}{50000}$\)
= 4.47
So number of cylinders ≈ 5 nos.
b). A turbo charged engine
BMEP = 20 bar = \($20 \times 10^5\ N/m^2$\)
and Volume V = \($0.05\ m^3 /s$\)
Power produced in one engine cylinder, p = BMEP x V
= \($20\times 10^5 \times 0.05$\)
= 100000 watts
Therefore, number of cylinders, n = \($\frac{P}{p}$\)
= \($\frac{223710}{100000}$\)
= 2.23
So number of cylinders ≈ 3 nos.
Which of the following can increase the heat island effect in urban areas?
A. Reduced air flow from tall buildings and narrow streets
The primary cause of the heat island effect is dark surfaces such as rooftops or dark asphalt pavement that absorb heat and radiate it into the surrounding areas.
Reduced air flow between buildings and narrow streets also increases the effect.
Other causes of the heat island effect include air-conditioners, vehicle exhaust, and calm and sunny weather.
B. Underground parking
Underground parking is a LEED strategy to reduce the heat island effect because it reduces the need for paved parking surfaces exposed to the sun.
C. Hardscapes shaded by trees
Hardscapes shaded by trees is a strategy to reduce the heat island effect.
D. Large areas of turf grass
Any type of vegetation will help reduce the heat island effect. Plants absorb the heat and do not radiate it.
The answer is A. Reduced airflow from tall buildings and narrow streets The primary cause of the heat island effect is dark surfaces such as rooftops or dark asphalt pavement that absorb heat and radiate it into the surrounding areas.
Heat island effect is the process by which urban areas are warmer than the surrounding rural areas. It occurs because of a variety of factors. The main cause of the heat island effect is dark surfaces such as rooftops or dark asphalt pavement that absorb heat and radiate it into the surrounding areas. Reduced airflow between buildings and narrow streets also increases the effect. Other causes of the heat island effect include air-conditioners, vehicle exhaust, and calm and sunny weather.
Underground parking is a LEED strategy to reduce the heat island effect because it reduces the need for paved parking surfaces exposed to the sun. Hardscapes shaded by trees are also a strategy to reduce the heat island effect.Any type of vegetation will help reduce the heat island effect. Plants absorb the heat and do not radiate it. Therefore, the is that reduced air flow from tall buildings and narrow streets can increase the heat island effect in urban areas.
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a 3500 psi concrete is made with limestone aggregate. suppose you replace 55% of the aggregate with solid steel balls (about the same average size as the aggregates). is the compressive strength going to increase? what about the elastic modulus? please justify your answer.
The modulus of elasticity of concrete increases in proportion to the magnitude of the material's compressive strength. This can be explained by a higher coefficient (correlation) between the compressive strength (square root) and modulus of elasticity of concrete.
What connection exists between strength and modulus of elasticity?It is an essential mechanical property of concrete. As the modulus of elasticity increases, the material stiffens and the structure's deflection decreases. A compressive strength test must be used to calculate the modulus of elasticity of concrete. It is a critical mechanical property of concrete. As the modulus of elasticity increases, the material stiffens and the structure experiences less deflection. The elastic modulus of concrete must be calculated using a compressive strength test.In general, the compressive strength of concrete and its elastic modulus are inextricably linked. The elastic modulus of concrete increases as its compressive strength increases.To learn more about elastic modulus refer to:
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The scale of the blueprint tells us the
of drawing to real space?
Answer:
yes
Explanation:
blueprint of the construction is a prediction of project its is slightly auto cad
Which of the following tasks might a civil engineer perform during a project’s construction phase in a design-build approach? (Select all that apply.)
Work with construction management to solve specific problems as they arise.
Draw up the contracts for construction management.
Ensure compliance with safety standards.
Provide information on design changes.
Answer:
Draw up the contract for construction management.
Answer:
Work with construction management to solve specific problems as they arise.
Ensure compliance with safety standards.
Explanation:
Tech A says that coolant circulates through some intake manifolds to help warm them up. Tech B says that some intake manifolds use an electric heater grid to warm up the intake air. Who is corr
Answer:
Both Tech A and Tech B are correct.
Explanation:
In order to ensure that some intake manifolds have coolant running through them to assist them to warm up and to also ensure that an electric heater grid is used in some intake manifolds to warm up the intake air, a preheat grid is positioned between the intake manifold and throttle body.
This therefore implies that both Tech A and Tech B are correct. That is, it is true that coolant circulates through some intake manifolds to ensure that they warm up. And it is also true that some intake manifolds use an electric heater grid to warm up the intake air. This however occurs when a preheat grid is positioned between the intake manifold and throttle body.
Un vendedor de camiones quiere suspender un vehículo de 4000 kg como se muestra en la figura, con fines publicitarios. La distancia b =15 m y la suma de las longitudes de los cables AB y BC es de 42 m. Los puntos A y C tienen una altura de 20 m . ¿Cuáles son las tensiones en los cables?
Answer:
english
Explanation:
Please answer ASAP!!
How do we define energy efficiency?
А.) the ratio of the actual output energy to the input energy
B.) the ratio of power gain to power loss
C.) the product of input power and output power
D.) the sum of potential and kinetic energy
Answer:
a
Explanation:
that is what energy efficiency is
Tech A says that dust masks should be used when painting. Tech B says that a respirator should be used when the TLV for a chemical is exceeded. Who is correct
According to the question of chemical , both Tech A and Tech B are correct.
What is chemical?
Chemistry is a branch of science that studies the composition, structure, and properties of matter, as well as the changes it undergoes during chemical reactions. It is the study of the composition, structure, and properties of matter, and the changes it undergoes during chemical reactions. It involves the study of the interactions between atoms and molecules, and the energy changes that accompany these interactions. Chemistry is a foundational science, as it is necessary to understand the properties and behavior of matter in order to understand the behavior of the elements, molecules, and compounds that make up the world.
Dust masks should be used when painting, and a respirator should be used when the threshold limit value (TLV) for a chemical is exceeded.
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Hey everyone!
This question is hard.
What specific fluid goes in the windshield wipers? (I never drove a car before)
And how much to put in fluid ounces? (So you don't blow a car up)
Answer:
What specific fluid goes in the windshield wipers.
Distilled water
How much to put in fluid ounces?
There should be a tiny bit more than 3/4 of the way full.
in cold climates, water pipes may freeze and burst if proper precautions are not taken. In such an occurrence, the exposed part of a pipe on the ground ruptures, and water shoots up to a height z2, of 52 m. Estimate the gage pressure of water in the pipe. The gage pressure of water in the pipe is determined to be kPa..
Answer:
Gauge Pressure = 408.3 KPa
Explanation:
The pressure inside the pipe can be given in terms of the elevation, by the following formula:
P = ρgΔz
where,
P = Absolute Pressure = ?
ρ = Density of Water = 1000 kg/m³
g = acceleration due to gravity = 9.8 m/s²
Δz = elevation = 52 m
Therefore,
P = (1000 kg/m³)(9.8 m/s²)(52 m)
P = 509.6 KPa
Now, for gauge pressure:
Gauge Pressure = P - Atmospheric Pressure
Gauge Pressure = 509.6 KPa - 101.3 KPa
Gauge Pressure = 408.3 KPa
what type of nuclear decay produces energy instead of a particle?
The type of nuclear decay that produces energy instead of a particle is nuclear fusion.
Nuclear fusion is a process in which two atomic nuclei join together to form a larger nucleus, releasing a significant amount of energy in the process. The energy produced is much greater than that produced by nuclear fission, which is another type of nuclear decay that involves the splitting of an atomic nucleus into smaller fragments. Nuclear decay is a process of spontaneous transformation of an unstable atomic nucleus to a more stable configuration accompanied by the release of energy or the emission of subatomic particles. There are several types of nuclear decay such as alpha decay, beta decay, and gamma decay. This question is concerned with the type of nuclear decay that produces energy instead of a particle. Nuclear fusion is a type of nuclear reaction that involves the merging of two atomic nuclei to form a single, more massive nucleus. During the process, a significant amount of energy is released in the form of light, heat, and radiation. This energy is the result of the conversion of a small portion of the mass of the atomic nuclei into energy, as predicted by Albert Einstein's famous equation, E = mc². Nuclear fusion is the energy source of stars like the Sun and other main-sequence stars. It is also being developed as a potential source of energy on Earth, through experiments like the International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER) project, which aims to harness nuclear fusion to produce clean and sustainable energy.
In conclusion, the type of nuclear decay that produces energy instead of a particle is nuclear fusion. It is a process in which two atomic nuclei join together to form a larger nucleus, releasing a significant amount of energy in the process. Nuclear fusion is the energy source of stars like the Sun and other main-sequence stars and is being developed as a potential source of energy on Earth.
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