Anyone know the answer

Answer:

5%

Step-by-step explanation:

I = P × R × T

420 = 1400 × R/100 × 6

R = 420 / 84 = 5%

The number 842 is the number whose digit 4 is ten times larger than in the number 384

To solve the problem, we need to find a number in which the digit 4 is ten times larger than in the number 384.

In the number 384, the digit 4 is in the ones place, which means that its value is 4.

To find a number in which the digit 4 is ten times larger, we need to find a number in which the digit 4 is in the tens place and its value is 10 times larger than 4, which is 40.

The only answer option that fits this description is 842. In this number, the digit 4 is in the tens place and its value is 40, which is ten times larger than its value in the number 384.

Therefore, the correct answer is 842.

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Answer:

the first one makes the most sense

Step-by-step explanation:

the others would equal to much but the first one would not

The ratio of EG = 36.

Let's assign variables to the lengths of the line segments:

EF = x

FG = 5x

GH = 3x

We know that EH = EF + FG + GH.

Substituting the given values, we have:

54 = x + 5x + 3x

Combining like terms, we get:

54 = 9x

To isolate x, we divide both sides of the equation by 9:

54/9 = x

Simplifying, we find:

6 = x

EF = 6, FG = 5(6) = 30, and GH = 3(6) = 18.

Since EG is the sum of EF and FG, we can calculate it as follows:

EG = EF + FG = 6 + 30

= 36

EG = 36.

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A uniform random variable's density function is f(y) = 1 for y 1 and 0 otherwise. F(y) = 0 for y 0, F(y) = y for 0 y 1, and F(y) = 1 for y > 1 define the distribution function.

A uniform random variable's density function is f(y) = 1 for y 1 and 0 otherwise. Accordingly, the likelihood of any specific outcome of y is the same, and the likelihood of any range of outcomes is equal to the length of the range. F(y) = 0 for y 0, F(y) = y for 0 y 1, and F(y) = 1 for y > 1 define the distribution function. Accordingly, the length of the range multiplied by the likelihood of any specific occurrence yields the cumulative probability of any range of outcomes. Since the likelihood of any specific result in that range is 1 and the range's length is 0.5, for instance, the cumulative probability of 0 y 0.5 is 0.5. Since the likelihood of any given result within that range is still 1, but the range's length is 0.5, the cumulative probability of 0.5 y 1 is 0.75. The chance of any range of outcomes for y1 and y2 if they are independent random variables both having the uniform(0,1) distribution is just the sum of their respective cumulative probabilities.

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9514 1404 393

Answer:

  in the order (5m, 3m, 2m+2), ...

Step-by-step explanation:

There are two possible solutions:

5m is the hypotenuse

  (5m)² = (3m)² +(2m+2)²

  25m² = 9m² +4m² +8m +4

  3m² -2m -1 = 0 . . . . . . . . . . . write in standard form, divide by 4

  (m -1)(3m +1) = 0 . . . . . . . . factor

The positive solution for m is the value that makes m-1=0. It is m=1.

The side lengths are ...

  5m = 5 . . . hypotenuse

  3m = 3

  2m+2 = 4

__

2m+2 is the hypotenuse

  (2m+2)² = (5m)² +(3m)²

  15m² -4m -2 = 0 . . . . . . . write in standard form, divide by 2

Then the solutions using the quadratic formula are ...

  m = (-(-4) ± √((-4)² -4(15)(-2)))/(2(15)) = (4 ± √136)/30 = (2±√34)/15

The positive solution for m is ...

  m = (2+√34)/15 ≈ 0.522063

Then the side lengths of the triangle are ...

  (2m +2) = (34 +2√34)/15 ≈ 3.0441 . . . hypotenuse

  5m = (2 +√34)/3 ≈ 2.6103

  3m = (2 +√34)/5 ≈ 1.5662

The correct answers are 1st and 4th i.e translate 2 units down and reflect the triangle.

We can easily deduce that the triangle A'B'C' is 2 units higher than the triangle ABC so if we want to map the both the triangles we have to make the triangle A'B'C' lower in the graph.

So, both the 1st and 4th points translate and reflect down the triangle A'B'C'  which will be mapped according to the triangle ABC.

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The probability that at most 2 of the next 10 callers have to wait more than 8 minutes is the sum of the probabilities of 0, 1, or 2 callers having to wait for more than 8 minutes which is 0.810

The probability that at most 2 of the next 10 callers having to wait can be defined using the expression :

P(X ≤ 2) = P(0) + P(1) + P(2)

Using the individual probabilities given by the histogram attached :

P(X ≤ 2) = 0.181 + 0.345 + 0.284

P(X ≤ 2) = 0.810

Therefore, the probability that at most 2 callers have to wait more than 8 minutes is 0.810

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Answer:

The answer is 5.534 x107km

Step-by-step explanation:

the answer is;ccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccc

Answer:

56 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

Here, I think you just accidentally put the value for the angle ZWX, which would be ZWP+PWX(56+56).

You actually already wrote it on the paper, so nothing wrong with your math here, just a thinking error :)

\( \:\:\:\:\:\:\star\longrightarrow \sf \underline{y = 5\:x^4\:tanx}\\\)

Differentiating with respect to x-

\( \:\:\:\:\:\:\longrightarrow \sf\dfrac{d}{dx}\:y = \dfrac{d}{dx}\: 5\:x^4\:tanx\\\)

\( \:\:\:\:\:\:\longrightarrow \sf\dfrac{dy}{dx}\:= 5\:\dfrac{d}{dx}\: \:x^4\:tanx\\\)

\( \:\:\:\:\:\:\longrightarrow \sf\dfrac{d}{dx}\:y =5\:\bigg[tanx\times \dfrac{d}{dx}\: \:x^4\:+x^4\times \dfrac{d}{dx} tanx\bigg]\\\)

\(\pink{\star}\:\boxed{\sf\sf\dfrac{d}{dx}\bigg[f(x)\:g(x)\bigg] = f(x) \dfrac{d}{dx} g(x) + g(x) \dfrac{d}{dx} f(x)}\\\)

\( \:\:\:\:\:\:\longrightarrow \sf\dfrac{dy}{dx}= 5\:\bigg[tanx\times 4\:x^3+ x^4 \times sec^2x \bigg]\\\)

\( \qquad\pink{\star}\:\:\:\:\boxed{\sf \dfrac{d}{dx}x^n=nx^{n-1}}\\\)

\( \qquad\pink{\star}\:\:\:\:\boxed{\sf \dfrac{d}{dx}tanx=sec^2x}\\\)

\( \:\:\:\:\:\:\longrightarrow \sf\dfrac{dy}{dx}= 5\:x^3\:\bigg[4tanx+ x sec^2x \bigg]\\\)

\( \:\:\:\:\:\:\longrightarrow \sf\underline{\dfrac{dy}{dx}= \boxed{\sf5\:x^3\:\bigg[4tanx+ x sec^2x \bigg]}}\\\)

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The next number is 110

She landed on the number 25 on the hundred chart.

What is an 100 chart?

It consists of the numbers to 100 in sequential order, with ten numbers per row across ten rows.

We are given that she was on 57th number

Then she moved down 3 rows

Each row contains 10 elements Hence we subtract 30 for 3 rows

57-30=27

Then also she took 2 steps back

Hence we again subtract 2 from 27

We get 27-2=25

Hence she is at 25th number

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Answer:

27 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

The transformations taking place in the given function is a horizontal left ward shift of 9 units and 1 unit upward vertical shift.

A Transformation in Math is a process of moving an object (two-dimensional shape) from its original position to a new position.

Given that, a function f(x) undergo some transformations to become f(x+9)-1,

We know that,

Vertical Shifting:

Adding a constant to a function will shift its graph vertically (i.e. y = f (x) + c). Adding a positive constant c will shift the graph upward c units, while adding a negative constant c will shift it downward c units.

Horizontal Shifting:

Horizontal shifts are inside changes that affect the input (x-) axis values and shift the function left or right. Combining the two types of shifts will cause the graph of a function to shift up or down and right or left.

Therefore, there is transformation of a horizontal and vertical shift.

Hence, the transformations taking place in the given function is a horizontal left ward shift of 9 units and 1 unit upward vertical shift.

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The digits after the decimal point repeat in a pattern of 6's. This is because 22/6 is a rational number,

A rational number is a number that can be expressed as a ratio or fraction of two integers (a numerator and a non-zero denominator).

We can see that the next three digits in the decimal points are 6, 6 and 6, respectively. Therefore, the decimal equivalent of 22/6 is:

22/6 = 3.666666...

We notice that the digits after the decimal point repeat in a pattern of 6's. This is because 22/6 is a rational number, which means that its decimal representation either terminates (ends) or repeats in a pattern. In this case, it repeats in a pattern of 6's.

Each of the digits after the decimal point will be 6 because this number is a rational number and repeating decimal with a repeating digit of 6.

The difference between 40 and the product of these digits and 6 is always 4.

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Step-by-step explanation:

given

23÷3(45+4)

23÷3(49)

23/147

Answer:

41.4 I believe

Step-by-step explanation:

First we start in the () so we do 45+4= 49.

Next we divide 23 by 3 and we get 7.66666667, but we reduce that to 7.6.

Then we have 7.6 I don't know the sign we have to use, I used subtraction, so we do 7.6 - 49, which actually gives us -41.4,

Let me know if you have any questions. I couldn't do this 100% because I didn't know the choices but try this and if not, I apologize.

Answer:

2

Step-by-step explanation:

14-(-2)/10-2

14+2/10-2

16/8

2

Answer:

\(2^{7} -9(4*4+4)\)

Step-by-step explanation:

\(\huge\underline\mathtt\colorbox{cyan}{One-group pretest-posttest}\)

The one-group pretest-posttest design is a type of quasi-experiment in which the outcome of interest is measured 2 times: once before and once after exposing a non-random group of participants to a certain intervention/treatment.

The objective is to evaluate the effect of that intervention which can be:

A training program

A policy change

A medical treatment, etc.

Answer:

20

Step-by-step explanation:

The theoretical probability of drawing 2 red marbles from the bag with replacement is one-fifth, which means that the probability of drawing 2 red marbles in any one trial is 1/5 or 0.2.

The number of times Jonah is expected to select 2 red marbles in 100 trials can be predicted using the expected value formula:

Expected value = (Number of trials) x (Probability of success in one trial)

Expected value = 100 x 0.2

Expected value = 20

Therefore, a reasonable prediction of the number of times Jonah will select 2 red marbles in 100 trials is 20. Therefore, the answer is 20.

Answer: 20 i took the test

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

A)

Function A: Exponential

Function B: Linear

Function C: Exponential

Function D: Exponential

B) Function A

Step-by-step explanation:

Function A: This is exponential because- (1, 3)(2,9)(3,27)

It is not going up by the same number each time. However, it is multiplying by 3 each time which means it is exponential.

Function B: This is linear because- (1, 64)(1, 80)(1, 96)

It is going up by 16 each time, (a constant number) which means it is linear.

Function C: This is exponential because- there is a curve, linear is always a straight line. But, this has a curve which means it is exponential.

Function D: This is exponential because- It is increasing by a percentage and not a constant number. It is increasing by 1% which means it is exponential.

The function that has the greatest growth factor is Function A because, Function A multiplies by 3 each time. Function B is linear, exponential functions always pass linear functions despite how "steep" they are. Eventually, the exponential function will surpass it. Function C is also exponential but is not as "steep" as Function A. Function A multiplies by 3 each time but Function C increases less. Function D is also exponential, and for the same reasons as Function C, Function A has the greatest growth factor.

Answer:

A. -25

Step-by-step explanation:

3x + 4 (-x - 5)

3x + 4 (-10)

15+4(-10)

15 + (-40)= -25

The domain of the relation of the graph representing a relation where x represents the independent variable and y represents the dependent variable is {−4, −2, 0, 3, 5}.

The domain of a relation is the set of all possible input values (independent variable) for which the relation is defined.

Looking at the given points, the x-coordinates are -4, -2, 0, 3, and 5. So, the possible input values are -4, -2, 0, 3, and 5.

Therefore, the domain of the relation is {−4, −2, 0, 3, 5}.

Hence, the correct option is {−4, −2, 0, 3, 5}.

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Please refer to the attached Image for the Answer

Answer:

D

598*47+38=

28106+38=

28134

The probability that a machine will fail at any time is 0.8

Probability of component A = 0.2

Probability of component B = 0.5

In the given case, the possible ways that a machine could fail must be considered. If either component A or component B fails, the machine will malfunction. Consequently, it can be determined the likelihood that the machine will fail by using the likelihood that components A and B would fail.

Calculating, the probability that both components A and B will not fail  -

( 1 - Probability of component A) x ( 1 - Probability of component B)

= (1 - 0.2) x (1 - 0.5)

= 0.4 x  0.5

= 0.2

Calculating, the probability that at least one of the components A or B will fail is:

= 1 - Total Probability

= 1 - 0.2

= 0.8

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