Answers
This condition is most likely caused by occlusion of middle cerebral artery.
A stroke, sometimes referred to as a brain assault, occurs when some thing blocks blood supply to part of the brain or while a blood vessel within the mind bursts. In either case, components of the brain turn out to be damaged or die. A stroke can purpose lasting mind harm, long-time period disability, or even death.
There are two main reasons of stroke: a blocked artery (ischemic stroke) or leaking or bursting of a blood vessel (hemorrhagic stroke).
The principle remedy for an ischemic stroke is a medicine known as tissue plasminogen activator (tPA). It breaks up the blood clots that block blood go with the flow on your brain.
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Related Questions
A 20-year-old man who smokes comes to your office for a new patient examination. The patient reports not having been to the dentist since he was about 10 years old. He claims to brush but not floss his teeth because his gums bleed when he flosses. He complains that a few of his teeth have recently become increasingly sensitive. After a brief initial extraoral and intraoral examination, the dentist orders a full mouth series of radiographs in order to proceed with the examination. While you are preparing the necessary films and holders, the patient asks you why you have to take so many radiographs. What are some of the reasons you can give him?
Answers
They allow your me to look past the tissue of your mouth, such as your gums, and into the deeper areas of your teeth and jaw bone. That way I can look for signs of oral health issues that may be invisible with a visual examination alone.
Au revoir mon amour <3
The charge nurse supervising a graduate nurse would need to intervene when the nurse violates health information privacy laws with which action?1. Accesses the medical record of a client not currently assigned, but previously cared for, to assess client improvement2. Advises a client's transport technician, "This client has metastatic breast cancer and must be moved very carefully due to fragile bones"3. Ask a client quietly, "When were you diagnosed with diabetes?" during admission assessment in a semiprivate room with the privacy curtain in place who is organizing paperwork to be included it he client's medical record4. Explains the results of a client's diagnostic testing to the unit clerk who is organizing paperwork to be included in the client's medical record5. Writes a client's last name on w whiteboard hanging in the nurse's station on which scheduled procedures are logged
Answers
The charge nurse would need to intervene when the nurse violates health information privacy laws by accessing the medical record of a client not currently assigned, but previously cared for, to assess client improvement. This is a violation of HIPAA laws, as access to medical records should only be granted on a need-to-know basis.
The other actions listed do not violate health information privacy laws, as long as the information is only shared with those who need to know about the client's care and treatment.
This action violates the principles of patient privacy and confidentiality. Revealing a client's last name in a public area where it can be seen by others, including visitors or unauthorized individuals, can compromise the confidentiality of their medical information. It is important to protect patient privacy by avoiding the use of identifying information in public spaces, especially when it can be easily accessible to people who do not have a legitimate need to know.
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Write a five-hundred-word research essay. Answer a specific question that you developed that explains
how the brain works in a particular way.
View the rubric for this essay.
Pls not to complicated I’m in 9 grade
Answers
Answer:
Types of Brain Drain
Geographical Brain Drain- This refers to the emigration of individuals of high-skills and high-brilliance to other nations. Furthermore, this departure takes place in search of better-paying jobs. Also, these better-paying jobs will lead to a higher standard of living. Most noteworthy, geographical Brain Drain creates a negative impact on the home country's economic development.
Organizational Brain Drain - This refers to the departure of individuals of skill, talent, and experience from one organization to another. Furthermore, organizational Brain Drain is very harmful for the organization in which this exodus occurs.
Industrial Brain Drain - This type involves the movement of skillful workers from one industryto another. Furthermore, industrial Brain Drain is the departure of individuals from one industry to another for better pay. Consequently, this causes a deficiency of talent in the industry which loses its workers to other industries.
Brain Drain in Europe follows two distinct trends. The first is an exodus of scientists of high qualification from Western Europe to the United States. Furthermore, the second trend is the migration of skillful workers from Central and South-eastern Europe into Western Europe.
African countries have lost a massive amount of skilled and talented individuals to developed nations. Most noteworthy, this makes it very difficult for African countries to come out of poverty. Furthermore, the most affected nations are Nigeria, Kenya, and Ethiopia.
There has been considerable emigration of talent from the Middle East. In Iraq under Saddam Hussain, there was a significant migration of professionals. This was due to a lack of support for these professionals under Saddam Hussain.
Also, in Iran, there is substantial emigration of skillful professionals on an annual basis. Moreover, the Arab world in general witnesses a huge amount of departures of experts. These departures are certainly due to better opportunities in technical fields in the west.
South Asia experiences a tremendous amount of emigration of talent. Furthermore, this trend is continuously rising year after year. Gulf Countries are a particularly favorite work location for many South Asians. Most noteworthy, there is a lot of demand for South Asian skilled, semi-skilled, and unskilled labor in the Gulf. Moreover, other favorite work locationsSouth Asia experiences a tremendous amount of emigration of talent. Furthermore, this trend is continuously rising year after year. Gulf Countries are a particularly favorite work location for many South Asians. Most noteworthy, there is a lot of demand for South Asian skilled, semi-skilled, and unskilled labor in the Gulf. Moreover, other favorite work locations for South Asians include Canada, United States, United Kingdom, and Australia.
To sum it up, Brain Drain is a widespread phenomenon these days. Many developing countries suffer from this problem of losing their talent to other countries. Most noteworthy, the government must take stern measures to control this loss of talent.
a patient with diabetes is started on a new prescription for a thiazide diureticin this patient, which laboratory result should be most carefully monitored ?
Answers
The nurse should carefully monitor for decreased serum levels of potassium.
What is thiazide diuretics?One of the first drugs prescribed for high blood pressure is thiazide diuretics.
Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ), chlorthalidone, and indapamide are the three thiazide diuretics that are most frequently used.
The FDA has given both HCTZ and chlorthalidone approval for use in treating primary hypertension.
Chlorothiazide, HCTZ, methychlothiazide, trichlormethiazide, polythiazide, and bendroflumethiazide are examples of thiazide-type diuretics. Thiazide-like diuretics include indapamide, CTDN, and metolazone.
Thiazide diuretics may cause the following adverse effects:
Hypokalemia (reduction in potassium levels in the blood) (decrease in potassium levels in the blood)
Hyponatremia (reduction in sodium levels in the blood) (decrease in sodium levels in the blood)
Metabolic alkalosis (raised pH and rise in bicarbonates in the body)
Hypercalcemia (increase in calcium levels in the blood) (increase in calcium levels in the blood)
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Which form of personal protective equipment (PPE) should ideally be worn when a nurse treats a patient who has
tuberculosis which can be passed by a cough?
Answers
Preferable 2 or 3
And of course if available gloves to prevent contact with droplets
Answer:
N95 or N100 face mask is the ideal ppe
Explanation:
This prevents cough droplets from being inhaled by the nurse, as hospital acquired Tb could be MRDS,
W H A T S A PP +254729369756
the nurse is assessing a client at 14 weeks' gestation at a routine prenatal visit and notes the fundal height is at the umbilicus. the nurse will most likely interpret this finding to indicate which situation?
Answers
This finding will probably be interpreted by the nurse as multiple fetal pregnancy.
What is umbilicus?The umbilical cord connects to the abdomen at the navel, also known as that of the umbilicus and belly button. The navel can be protruding, flat, or recessed. A navel is present in all placental mammals, though it is typically more noticeable in humans. The abdomen can be visibly divided into four quadrants using the umbilicus. The umbilicus is just a noticeable scar on the belly, and human beings generally have the same position for it. The tenth long thoracic nerve supplies the skin all around waist just at level of a umbilicus (T10 dermatome). The location of the umbilicus varies across individuals normally between the L3 or L5 vertebrae, which corresponds to the junction of the L3 & L4 vertebrae.
Is the umbilicus the belly button and write its fucntions?Technically known as the umbilicus, your navel is also referred to as the "belly button." Every person has them. Other mammals also have them, but they are often flat or smooth, and frequently simply a thin line that is covered by fur.
The umbilical cord is regarded as the fetus's and mother's physical and psychological connection. This arrangement enables the exchange of nutrients and oxygen from the mother's blood into the fetal blood while also eliminating waste materials from the fetal blood for elimination by the mother.
Briefing:
At 20 weeks of gestation, the fundus is usually when at level of the umbilicus. The fundal height is therefore higher than anticipated, raising the possibility of multiple gestation, polyhydramnios, fetal abnormalities, or macrosomia. Smaller measures than anticipated could indicate intrauterine growth restriction or a possible lack of amniotic fluid. The uterus would be displaced by urinary retention.
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What is Trough in pharmacology?
Answers
A "trough" in pharmacology relates to a drug's bloodstream concentration at its lowest point. This measurement is made at a certain period after the medicine has been given out, often right before the next dose is given. Knowing a patient's trough level helps doctors and chemists to make personalised dose recommendations, that will increase the drug's effectiveness while reducing toxicity or side effects.
Factors Affecting Trough Levels of DrugsThe patient's genetics, liver and kidney function, and underlying medical issues are only a few of the factors that can have an impact on a drug's trough level. Timing is important for multiple drugs as well. For example, using a blood sugar-lowering medication before meals, when glucose levels are normally higher, may result in a greater trough concentration.
Importance of Measuring Trough Levels for Personalised Pharmacological CareOverall, trough level measurement is an important part of pharmacology because it enables medical professionals to deliver customised care based on each patient's specific needs and medication responses. Patients may improve their health and quality of life by adjusting dosages to achieve beneficial effects without harming them.
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GI tract is not a sterile place, it contains several different types of bacteria.
False
True
Answers
Answer:
True the Gi tract has over 400 types of bacterias
Explanation:
Answer:
True
Explanation:
translating the 2019 aad-npf guidelines of care for the management of psoriasis with biologics to clinical practice deeti j. pithadia,
Answers
Deeti J. Pithadia translated the 2019 AAD-NPF Guidelines of Care for the management of psoriasis with biologic to clinical practice.
The 2019 AAD-NPF Guidelines of Care for the management of psoriasis with biologics provide evidence-based recommendations for the use of biologic therapies in treating psoriasis. Deeti J. Pithadia undertook the task of translating these guidelines into clinical practice.
In the translation process, Deeti J. Pithadia likely examined the guidelines and extracted key recommendations that are applicable and relevant to clinical settings.
The translation may involve adapting the language and format of the guidelines to make them more accessible and practical for healthcare professionals to implement in their daily practice.
The purpose of translating guidelines to clinical practice is to bridge the gap between research-based recommendations and their implementation in real-world patient care.
By providing a practical interpretation of the guidelines, Deeti J. Pithadia aims to facilitate healthcare professionals' understanding and application of the guidelines' recommendations when managing psoriasis patients with biologic therapies.
This translation can help ensure that patients receive optimal and evidence-based care, enhancing treatment outcomes and patient satisfaction.
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how many ticket is that per dollar
Answers
Answer:
I think the question was Tyler paid $16 for 4 raffle tickets. How many tickets is that per dollar?
Explanation:
So the answer is 0.25
Question 7
Extending equal pay requirements to all persons who are doing equal work is known
as
O cost/benefit analysis.
O due process.
O comparable worth.
O fidelity.
Answers
Extending equal pay requirements to all persons who are doing equal work is known as Comparable worth.
Option C is correct.
Comparable worth :Similar worth, also known as sex equity or pay equity, is the idea that men and women should be treated equally for work that requires similar abilities, responsibilities, and effort. Comparable worth involves valuing jobs that are dominated by men and women. Discrimination based on gender only affects women. To meet customer preferences, one gender can be chosen over another. Under the Equal Pay Act, men and women working in the same position cannot be paid differently.
What is similarity in value analysis?Comparable worth emphasizes the value a position brings to a company. This indicates that the value of two very different jobs within the same organization could be found to be the same. Based on the review metric, for instance, it could be determined that an engineer and an accountant provide the same value to the business.
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three cards are randomly chosen at the sdamw trime from a set numbered from 1 to 7. what is the probability that the chosen ardsd are numbered 1,2, and 3
Answers
The probability that the chosen cards are numbered 1, 2, and 3 is 1/35, or approximately 0.0286 (rounded to four decimal places).
To calculate the probability of choosing the cards numbered 1, 2, and 3 from a set numbered 1 to 7, we need to determine the total number of possible outcomes and the number of favorable outcomes.
Total number of possible outcomes:
When three cards are chosen at the same time, the total number of possible outcomes can be calculated using combinations. We have 7 cards in the set, and we need to choose 3 cards, so the total number of possible outcomes is given by the combination formula:
C(7, 3) = 7! / (3!(7-3)!) = 35
Number of favorable outcomes:
We want to choose three specific cards, namely 1, 2, and 3. Since there is only one 1, one 2, and one 3 in the set, the number of favorable outcomes is 1.
Probability:
The probability of an event is given by the ratio of favorable outcomes to the total number of outcomes. In this case, the probability of choosing the cards numbered 1, 2, and 3 is:
Probability = Number of favorable outcomes / Total number of outcomes
= 1 / 35
Thus, the probability is 1/35, or approximately 0.0286 (rounded to four decimal places). This means that there is a 2.86% chance of randomly choosing the cards numbered 1, 2, and 3 from the set of cards numbered 1 to 7.
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Data for the cohort study were obtained from the population of all physicians listed in the British Medical Register who resided in England and Wales as of October 1951. Questionnaires were mailed in October 1951, to 59,600 physicians.
The questionnaire asked the physicians to classify themselves into one of three categories:
1) current smoker, 2) ex-smoker, or 3)nonsmoker.
Smokers and ex-smokers were asked the amount they smoked, their method of smoking, the age they started to smoke, and, if they had stopped smoking, how long it had been since they last smoked. Nonsmokers were defined as persons who had never consistently smoked as much as one cigarette a day for as long as one year.
Usable responses to the questionnaire were received from 40,637 (68%) physicians, of whom 34,445 were males and 6,192 were female. This study was limited to the analysis of male physician respondents, 35 years of age or older.
The following table shows numbers of lung cancer deaths by daily number of cigarettes smoked at the time of the 1951 questionnaire (for male physicians who were nonsmokers and current smokers only). Person-years of observation ("person-years at risk") are given for each smoking category. The number of cigarettes smoked was available for 136 of the persons who died from lung cancer.
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
I apologize, but it seems that the table you mentioned is missing from the information provided. Without the specific numbers and values in the table, I cannot provide a detailed analysis or answer any questions related to the numbers of lung cancer deaths by daily number of cigarettes smoked.
If you have any other questions or need assistance with a different topic, please let me know, and I'll be happy to help.
A(n) _____________ is an episode during which the individual will continue to function but does not have a conscious awareness of or will not be able to remember the events that occur during this time-tolerance-blackout-tolerance break-intoxication
Answers
A blackout is a time frame during which a person can still function but is unaware of or unable to remember the events that took place during that time. -intoxication -tolerance-break Breaking the blackout tolerance.
What does Blackout mean?A short loss of consciousness is called a blackout. During a blackout, your memory is lost. Blackouts can have a variety of causes, including side effects from medicines or alcohol, circulatory issues, and neurological conditions like epilepsy.
What does it feel like to be unconscious?Amnesia that lasts for several hours can occur in those who experience this kind of blackout, often known as a "en bloc" blackout. It may seem as though you were absent while certain things happened. Blacking out can lead to passing out in certain people.
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Violating a resident right is breaking the law and may result in punishment that can include what?
Answers
Please let me know if i’m wrong, thank you!
An 8-year-old girl comes to your ambulatory care clinic with complaints of left ear pain for the past 3 days. She had respiratory infection a week ago. On physical examination, the tympanic membrane is bulging. Answer the following questions:________.
1. What else should you ask the client?
2. What teaching would you reinforce to prevent the recurrence of otitis media?
3. What expected outcomes would be specific to this situation?
Answers
Answer:
The answer is below
Explanation:
Given the situation above
1. Some of the questions that will be asked from the client includes:
(a). Is your ear feel full?
b) is there any fluid coming out of your ear?
c). do you normally swim?
d). recently, is there anything stuck in your ear?
e). Is the pain from the ear so intense?
2. Some of the teaching to reinforce to prevent the recurrence of otitis media are:
a) Advise the client and her parents to clean the outer layer of the ear.
b) Avoid anything less than elbow in size, in the ear.
c) Ensure the ears are dry immediately after swimming or baths/showers.
3. Some of the expected outcomes that be specific to this situation are:
a) sleeplessness
b) ear pain
c) diarrhea
d) irritability
e) lack of balance
f) hearing loss
Acategorical term for a word part that is added to a root word to change or modify its meaning is called a(n)
A word part added to the beginning of a word and that is often used to indicate location, time, or present status is
called an)
A word part that is added to the ending of a root word to form a new term is called the
A root word with an added vowel at the end that makes it easier to pronounce is called a
Answers
2) prefix
3) suffix
4)combing form
A dog owner notices their dog has had tarry diarrhea, dark stools, vomiting and has become very lethargic. What is the diagnosis and treatment?
Answers
Any infection, even severe ones like leptospirosis, parvovirus, distemper, kennel cough, and heartworm disease, can make your dog sluggish. Feces are one way that the parvovirus spreads.
What causes diarrhoea and vomiting most frequently in dogs?ingesting foreign items like cloth, bones, or toys. consuming poisons or toxins. viral illnesses such coronavirus, distemper, or parvovirus. Roundworms, hookworms, whipworms, Coccidia, or Giardia are examples of parasites.
Black stools, sometimes referred to as melena, can be caused by a variety of conditions, including pancreatitis and renal failure as well as exposure to toxins or a foreign substance in the digestive system. Dr. Spangler continues, "Cancer, foreign things, parasites, and viral or bacterial infections are some of the more typical causes of black dog faeces."
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________________ is effective in determining the size, shape, location, and cause of a velopharyngeal gap, which is helpful for surgical planning.
Answers
Imaging, such as nasopharyngoscopy or video fluoroscopy, is effective in determining the size, shape, location, and cause of a velopharyngeal gap, which is helpful for surgical planning.
Imaging techniques such as nasopharyngoscopy and videofluoroscopy are commonly used to diagnose and evaluate the extent of velopharyngeal gaps, which can cause hypernasal speech and other related issues.
Nasopharyngoscopy involves the insertion of a thin, flexible tube with a camera through the nose to visualize the velopharyngeal anatomy in real-time, while videofluoroscopy uses a special X-ray technique to capture images of the swallowing process, allowing for a dynamic evaluation of the velopharyngeal mechanism.
By accurately assessing the size, shape, location, and underlying cause of the velopharyngeal gap, surgical planning can be optimized for the best possible outcome.
This information is particularly important in cases of cleft palate or other congenital abnormalities that affect the velopharyngeal mechanism.
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Is it ethical for a living person with two good eyes to donate an eye to enable a blind person to see
Answers
Answer:
yes
Explanation:
Well, if they are ok with it. The other person might have something terribly wrong to where they would have to lose their eye. It would be perfectly ethical.
What does it mean to be an eye donor? ... a person may donate a cornea to themselves is where one eye can still see and ... Could a living person donate an eye? ... eyes are not the same as kidneys and are generally considered to need both ... In general, good candidates have corneal conditions that need the transplant ...
an episiorrhaphy is a surgical incision of the perineum and vagina to facilitate delivery. t or f
Answers
Your vaginal opening will be made larger during this surgery to prepare for childbirth.
What portion of the uterus has a bulging, rounded portion above the fallopian tube entrance?
The root
The superior, spherical area above the fallopian tube opening is known as the fundus. The inferior exit that extends into the vagina is known as the cervix.
Is a cyst that forms in the epididymis filled with milky fluid and sperm?
The epididymis, a tiny, coil-shaped tube on the upper testicle that gathers and transmits sperm, is where spermatoceles (SPUR-muh-toe-seel) generate aberrant sacs (cysts). A spermatocele, which is noncancerous and typically painless, is typically filled with milky or transparent fluid that may include sperm
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After assessing if the scene is safe, checking for responsiveness, activating the EMS/sending someone for an AED, and establishing no breathing or pulse the next step is to begin chest compressions
Answers
The first step in performing CPR is to ensure the safety of the scene, followed by checking for responsiveness and activating emergency medical services (EMS) or sending someone to get an automated external defibrillator (AED).
If the person is not breathing or has no pulse, the next step is to begin chest compressions.
CPR, or cardiopulmonary resuscitation, is a lifesaving technique that is used when a person's heart has stopped beating or they have stopped breathing.
Chest compressions involve pushing down on the person's chest to help circulate oxygen-rich blood to vital organs. This technique can help keep the person alive until medical professionals arrive.
It is important to begin chest compressions as soon as possible and to continue until help arrives. CPR can be physically demanding, so it is important to rotate compressors every two minutes to avoid fatigue.
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Blood type A+ indicates
a. The lack of anti-B antibodies
b. The presence of RH (Rhesus factor) antigen on the red blood cells
c. Type A blood that is unusually red
d. A certain determination that the blood is type A
Answers
use a half-life of 8 hours to determine the amount of a drug left in the body at 4 p.m. if a 500-mg dose of the drug was taken at 8 a.m.
Answers
At 4 p.m., there will be approximately 125 mg of the drug left in the body. the remaining 250 mg is halved again to 125 mg Therefore, at 4 p.m., approximately 125 mg of the drug will be left in the body.
The half-life of 8 hours means that every 8 hours, the amount of the drug in the body is reduced by half. Since the drug was taken at 8 a.m. and we want to determine the amount at 4 p.m., which is 8 hours later, we have two half-lives. The initial dose of 500 mg is reduced by half after the first 8 hours, resulting in 250 mg remaining. Another half-life later (16 hours since the initial dose), the remaining 250 mg is halved again to 125 mg Therefore, at 4 p.m., approximately 125 mg of the drug will be left in the body.
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the nurse is caring for a child who fractured their arm in an accident. a cast has been applied to the child's right arm. which action(s) should the nurse implement? select all that apply.
Answers
The nurse should implement the following actions when caring for a child who has fractured their arm in an accident:
The nurse should monitor the cast for signs of discomfort or skin irritation, such as redness, itching, or swelling, as these are all signs of a poor fit or an infection. The nurse should also instruct the child on proper care for the cast. This includes keeping it clean, avoiding getting it wet, and avoiding any contact with sharp objects.
The nurse should also instruct the child to avoid strenuous activities with the cast, as it may cause further damage or loosen the cast. Finally, the nurse should regularly inspect the cast for damage, cracking, and deformity, as these may lead to further injury.
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A young woman has an iv infusing for magnesium sulfate to treat preterm labor. the woman develops a fever. what is the first assessment the nurse should make?
Answers
The first assessment that the nurse should make about a patient having an IV infusing for magnesium sulfate to treat preterm labor and later developing a fever is: if there is redness at the IV (intravenous) site.
IV literally means into the veins. Medically, it is the administration of fluids or medicines into the body of a patient, "through the veins" using an intravenous tube. The common side effects of the IV can be fever, redness or swelling at the site of injection. Hence, if there is redness at the site of injection, the possibility is that the fever must be due to the IV.
Preterm labor is the emergence of labor pain after the 20th week and before the 37th week of pregnancy. This causes the contraction of uterine muscles that may result in the pre-mature birth of the fetus.
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how is surgery related to science?
Answers
An investigator proposes a study to determine the clinical relevance of a new assay technique to measure minimal residual disease (MRD) in adolescent (age 14-16) cancer patients undergoing chemotherapy. The study requires that two additional bone marrow aspirates be performed during the course of chemotherapy. The subject's chemotherapy will not be altered based on the results of the assay technique measures. However, future patients with cancer would benefit from improved interventions based on study findings. The IRB determined that the activity was a minor increase over minimal risk. Which of the following statements best describes the IRB approval requirements for involving adolescent cancer patients in the research study?
Answers
Assent of the child and permission of both parents are required is the statements best describes the IRB approval requirements for involving adolescent cancer patients in the research study.
For initiatives that: Comply with the criteria for research, IRB evaluation and approval are necessary. use human beings as well. include any interaction or intervention involving the use of identifiable private information involving human people. In accordance with this method, studies are allocated to one or more IRB members for a thorough examination of all materials. The study is then presented by the principal reviewer(s) at the IRB meeting that has been called, and after discussion among IRB members, a decision is made. IRB approval is only permitted by federal regulations if it occurs before the start of the study activities. Without first obtaining IRB approval, the IRB cannot order the investigator to destroy data or forbid them from reviewing or disseminating the information gathered.
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diets that are high in which of the following are associated with high blood levels of homocysteine, a potential risk factor for cardiovascular disease?
Answers
A high-protein diet, especially one that includes red meat and dairy products, can increase blood levels of homocysteine.
what does homocysteine level tell you ?
A homocysteine test is a blood test. It measures the amount of homocysteine, an amino acid in the body. The test is often used to diagnose vitamin B6, B9 or B12 deficiency. People with elevated homocysteine may have a higher risk for cardiovascular disease.
Food for homocysteine levels:
Eating more fruits and vegetables can help lower your homocysteine level. Leafy green vegetables such as spinach are good sources of folate.
Research has indicated towards a relationship between moderately elevated homocysteine levels and the risk of CVD (coronary, heart, cerebrovascular and peripheral artery diseases)
High levels of homocysteine can damage the inside of your arteries and increase your risk of forming blood clots.
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Medicare Part D covers
A. occupational therapy visits.
B. hospital inpatient stays.
C. physician surgeries.
D. prescription drugs.
Answers
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Medicare Part D, the prescription drug benefit, is the part of Medicare that covers most outpatient prescription drugs.