1. which of the following is LEAST likely associated with alcohol consumption?

A. Heart disease

B. hypertension

C. obesity

D. cirrhosis of the liver



2.Disaster preparedness plans can be formed to:

(A) Develop scenarios of what might happen and the likelihood

(B) Build homes for people after a disaster

(C) Aand B only

(D) Train first responders and managers to deal with such emergencies

(E) All of the above

Answers

Answer 1
The least likely option that associates with alcohol consumption would be obesity. Option C.All the options are applicable to forming disaster preparedness. Option E.

What is obesity?

1. Obesity is the least likely to be associated with alcohol consumption. While excessive alcohol consumption can lead to weight gain and contribute to obesity, it is not typically considered one of the primary health risks associated with alcohol consumption.

The other options listed (heart disease, hypertension, and cirrhosis of the liver) are commonly linked to excessive alcohol consumption.

2. All of the above are possible outcomes of disaster preparedness plans. Developing scenarios and assessing the likelihood of disasters can help communities better understand and prepare for potential threats.

Building homes for people after a disaster is a key component of disaster recovery efforts. Training first responders and emergency managers is also critical in order to ensure an effective response to disasters.

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Answer 2
Question 1: Answer is c
Question 2: answer is e

Related Questions

The foramen ovale and the ductus arteriosus are both examples of __________.

Answers

Answer:

The 3 main shunts in fetal circulation are ductus arteriosus, ductus venosus, and foramen ovale. The general purpose of these 3 shunts is to divert blood and nutrients efficiently for the fetus, including its fetal heart and body.

Explanation:

The foramen ovale and the ductus arteriosus are both examples of pulmonary bypass shunts, which serve to bypass the lungs. The correct option is a.

During fetal development, the lungs are non-functional as the oxygenation of the blood primarily occurs through the placenta.

The foramen ovale and the ductus arteriosus are two anatomical structures that facilitate the diversion of blood away from the lungs, bypassing their non-functioning state.

The foramen ovale is a hole or opening between the two atria of the fetal heart. It allows oxygenated blood returning from the placenta to pass directly from the right atrium to the left atrium, bypassing pulmonary circulation.

The ductus arteriosus is a blood vessel that connects the pulmonary artery and the aorta in the fetal heart. It serves as a shunt that diverts a portion of the blood from the pulmonary artery directly into the systemic circulation, bypassing the lungs.

Thus, the correct option is a.

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The foramen ovale and the ductus arteriosus are both examples of __________.

a. pulmonary bypass shunts, which serve to bypass the lungs

b. cells of the somatic mesoderm, which help to form the dermis of the skin

c. venous shunts, which serve to bypass the liver sinusoids

d. cells of the mesoderm that form the heart and blood vessels

1 — Which of the following is an example of passive transport
a) Ca efflux by Ca pump
b) Ca sequestration in sarcoplasmic reticulum
c) K efflux through k leak channels
d) Na/Ca exchange

Answers

K efflux through k leak channels is an example of passive transport and is therefore denoted as option C.

What is Passive transport?

This is referred to as a type of membrane transport that does not require energy to move substances across cell membranes but instead involves the use of other mechanisms.

K efflux through k leak channels is an example of passive transport because its mechanism involves the subset of K+ channels are open even in an unstimulated or “resting” cell and energy isn't required during this process which is therefore the reason why it was chosen as the correct choice,.

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Which source document may NOT be used to determine whether an adverse event is expected or not in clinical studies in which an investigational new drug is used?

Answers

Answer: D. Annual Safety Report

Explanation:

The FDA requires that when there is a chance that an adverse effect might occur in a clinical trial, that it is included in certain documents.

It is to be included in an investigator brochure to ensure that the investigators are aware.

Protocol documents should also have the events disclosed and the the clinical participants should be aware of it in the Informed Consent Form that they sign.

An Annual Safety Report is not a primary source document in the first place so is the wrong option here.

The open posterior end of the pons and medulla is called what?

Answers

Answer:

the cerebellum, separated by the fourth ventricle. Inferiorly – the medulla oblongata. Superiorly – the midbrain lies immediately above the pons.

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Answer:

Their answer is correct i agree with them.

Explanation:

You are assessing breathing. Which of these signs is just as important as the respiratory rate?

Answers

Answer:

When observing the respiratory rate, it is important to note the color of the patient's lips. They may be cyanosed (blue) or discolored if the patient has respiratory problems. Cyanosis can also be observed in the nail bed, the tip of the nose, and ear lobes

Knowledge and attitude of women towards pre menopausal syndrome

Answers

Answer:

Irritability and feelings of sadness are the most common emotional symptoms of menopause. Often, they can be managed through lifestyle changes, such as learning ways to relax and reduce stress. Here are some tips that may make it easier for you to handle your fluctuating emotions: Exercise and eat healthy.

you are on the scene of a 16-year-old patient in respiratory distress. the patient has a history of asthma. after placing the patient on oxygen and performing the primary and secondary assessments, you are confident that the patient is indeed having an asthma attack. how can you be sure your field diagnosis is accurate? question 1 options: a) think of all possible causes of respiratory distress and rule them in or out as potential diagnoses based on your clinical findings. b) ask your partner her opinion; if she also agrees that it is asthma, the diagnosis is correct c) constantly reassess the patient to make sure you are correct d) keep your emt textbook with you on the ambulance and review it to confirm your diagnosis

Answers

The answer to this question is (a) think of all possible causes of respiratory distress and rule them in or out as potential diagnoses based on your clinical findings.

Other causes of Respiratory Distress pneumonia or severe flu sepsisa severe chest injury accidentally inhaling vomit, smoke or toxic chemicals near drowning acute pancreatitis – a serious condition where the pancreas becomes inflamed over a short time an adverse reaction to a blood transfusion Asthma attack signs and symptoms include: Severe shortness of breath, chest tightness or pain, and coughing or wheezing Low peak expiratory flow (PEF) readings if you use a peak flow meter Symptoms that fail to respond to the use of a quick-acting (rescue) inhaler

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tech a says to use an air hose to clean the backing plate of dust and contamination. tech b says to use a brake cleaning solution to clean the backing plate of dust and contamination. who is correct? group of answer choices tech a tech b both a and b neither a nor b

Answers

The advice of tech b to use a brake cleaning solution to clear the backing plate of dust and dirt is right.

A drum brake is a type of brake that relies on friction created by a set of shoes or pads pressing outward against a revolving cylinder-shaped element known as a brake drum. Drum brakes are commonly used to describe brakes in which shoes press against the inside surface of the drum. As shoes push against the exterior of the drum, a clasp brake develops. A pinch drum brake is one in which the drum is squeezed between two shoes, comparable to a typical disc brake, albeit such brakes are rather uncommon.

Drum brakes have such a natural "self-applying" or "self-energizing" property. The rotation of the drum might drag one or both of shoes into to the friction surface, forcing the brakes too bite harder and increasing the force that holds them together.

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what is the most common nosocomial infection in patients admitted to the hospital?

Answers

The bacterium Staphylococcus aureus is the most frequent cause of nosocomial infections, although other bacteria, viruses, and fungi can also do so.

Nosocomial infection A subgroup of infectious diseases contracted in a healthcare setting is known as nosocomial infections, often known as health-care associated or hospital-acquired infections. Nosocomial infections must emerge at least 48 hours after admission; they cannot already be present at the time of admission.Infections linked to healthcare can affect both adult and pediatric patients. The most frequent healthcare-associated infections in children are bloodstream infections, which are followed by pneumonia and urinary tract infections; in adults, urinary tract infections are the most frequent healthcare-associated infections.The most frequent pathogens that result in nosocomial infections, according to the CDC, are Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and E. coli.

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A client is diagnosed as having serous otitis media. When describing this condition to the client, which of the following would be most accurate?

Answers

"You have some fluid that has collected in your middle ear but no infection."


Serous otitis
media involves fluid, with out proof of active contamination, in the middle ear. Recurrent episodes of acute otitis media results in continual otitis media. An contamination of the temporal bone (temporal bone osteomyelitis) is a critical however rare outside ear contamination called malignant external otitis. Rupturing of the eardrum refers to tympanic membrane perforation.
Otitis media with effusion (OME) is a set of non-inflamed fluid in the middle ear space. it is also referred to as serous or secretory otitis media (SOM). This fluid may additionally accumulate inside the middle ear due to a chilly, sore throat or higher respiration infection.
signs and symptoms include listening to loss and a feel of fullness or stress within the ear. prognosis is based on appearance of the tympanic membrane and every so often on tympanometry. most instances resolve in 2 to three weeks.

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a prenatal client at 16 weeks' gestation presents to the clinic with unexplained bright red spotting, cramping, and backache, which she has had for the past two days. a pelvic exam reveals a closed cervix. what type of abortion/miscarriage does this indicate?

Answers

This indicates threatening abortion. Vaginal bleeding throughout pregnancy which does not fulfill the clinical definition for spontaneous abortion constitutes a threatening abortion.

When an abortion is threatened, the cervical is remains closed. Within the first two trimesters, about 25% of pregnant women experience vaginal bleeding, with around 50% of these resulting in pregnancy loss.

Typically, the bleeding throughout a threatened abortion is mild to moderate. Intermittent cramping, suprapubic discomfort, pelvis tension, or lower back pain are all symptoms of stomach pain.

During early pregnancy, the ovary secretes progesterone. It is a necessary hormone for the beginning and continuation of pregnancy. Progestogens can be administered orally, intramuscularly, or as vaginal suppositories to women who are at risk of miscarriage/abortion.

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Medical ethics involves rules that are __________, rather than __________.

Answers

I attach the answers on the picture
Medical ethics involves rules that are __________, rather than __________.

Which types of drugs work through physical or chemical reactions rather than through receptor
binding?

Answers

Drug, any chemical substance that affects the functioning of living things and the organisms (such as bacteria, fungi, and viruses) that infect them.

Which organ performs the given function? The roof of the mouth separates the oral cavity from the nasal cavity. The is flexible and closes off the nasal cavity when you swallow.

Answers

Soft palate


The soft palate is composed of muscle and connective tissue, which give it both mobility and support. This palate is very flexible. When elevated for swallowing and sucking, it completely blocks and separates the nasal cavity and nasal portion of the pharynx from the mouth and the oral part of the pharynx.

Which are components of the integumentary system? Select five responses.
freckles
stratum granulosum
hyperdermis
keratin
dermis
stratum corneum

Answers

Answer:

freckles

stratum granulosum

keratin

dermis

stratum corneum

According to the context, the components of the integumentary system are:

FrecklesStratum granulosumKeratinDermisStratum corneum

What is the integumentary system?

It is made up of the skin and what is defined as its annexes; that is, nails, hair, sebaceous glands, freckles, the keratin in the stratum corneum that is arranged as compact sheets, among others.

It covers the body and protects it from friction and trauma, on the one hand, and from infections, on the other, it is also a thermoregulatory element.

Therefore, we can conclude that according to the context, the integumentary system is the system composed of the skin and its derivatives.

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Which of the following is NOT an element of progression?
A.
type
B.
duration
C.
exertion
D.
strength

Answers

Answer:

d. strength

Hope it helped u

D. Strength, is not an element of progression

It was 4:36 a.m. She was in a cold sweat and having difficulty breathing. She felt as though she had run
a marathon. Fear swept through her-something terrible was going to happen. Panic-stricken, she
woke her husband, Jeremy.
"Denise, what is it? Is it a nightmare?"
"No, it's like I'm having an asthma attack. I feel lightheaded and I can't catch my breath. My heart feels
like it's beating a thousand times a minute."
Afraid to upset her husband further, Denise didn't tell him that an immense feeling of apprehension
suddenly overcame her. She got up to drink some water and waited for the anxiety to subside. Her
mind was racing. Jeremy had a family history of heart disease. This couldn't be happening to her. It
was his problem. A few months earlier Jeremy was diagnosed with coronary artery disease. He was
only 48 years old, the same age as Denise. The scare had encouraged him to gradually end years of
chain smoking and adopt a healthier lifestyle. He was currently working on giving up the occasional
cigarette for good.
"No," Denise thought to herself. "There's no way this was a sign of heart troubles. I didn't have a pain
in my chest, I'm physically fit, and I have no family history. There's just no way.
After assuring herself of this, Denise was somehow able to fall back asleep.
Questions:
1. How likely is this to be a heart problem? Asthma? Panic attack? Or...?
2. Why do you say this? What are the symptoms that are consistent with your preliminary
diagnosis? Is there anything unusual?

Answers

Answer:preliminary dx is panic attack she has no family history chest has no pain physically fit. Able to fall back to sleep

Explanation:

What is a nursing assistant? a clinical provider who helps restore the health of healthcare recipients a medical provider who helps restore the health of healthcare recipients a licensed nurse who helps restore the health of healthcare recipients

Answers

Explanation:

Unlicensed assistive personnel are paraprofessionals who assist individuals with physical disabilities, mental impairments, and other health care needs with their activities of daily living.A certified nursing assistant helps patients with direct health care needs.

The size of the human genome is 3.2x109bp. The 3.2kb long fragment is to be amplified by Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) using the human genome as a template. How many cycles of PCR is necessary for the amplified target sequence at least 50% (by mass) of the total DNA in the reaction mixture. Explain how you arrived to this number.

Answers

20 cycles of PCR is necessary for the amplification target sequence

Mass is proportional to sequence length.

Let one base pair have mass M.

Thus,

\(3.2*10^9 bp\) will have mass \((3.2*10^9) * M\)

And the 3.2kb target will have a mass of

For the total amount of amplified target sequence to constitute 50% (by mass) of the total DNA in the reaction mixture, it has to be amplified to such an extent that the total mass of the amplicon matter is also \((3.2 * 109) * M\)

PCR amplification happens geometrically, doubling the DNA target with each cycle.

Thus, if the number of cycles in N,

Then,

\((3.2 * 10^9) x M = 3.2 x 1000 x M x (2)N\\\\or 10^6 = (2)^N\\\\or 6 = N log2\\\\or N = \frac{6}{log2} = 20\)

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How long does it take to become an anesthesiologist?

Answers

Answer:

12 to 14 years

Explanation:

How many licks does it take to lick the center of a tootsie pop?





364 licks
A group of engineering students from Purdue University reported that its licking machine, modeled after a human tongue, took an average of 364 licks to get to the center of a Tootsie Pop.

Answers

Answer:

364

Explanation:

A group of engineering students from Purdue University reported that its licking machine, modeled after a human tongue, took an average of 364 licks to get to the center of a Tootsie Pop.

Can this really be proved by science? Everyone has a different lick

Mr. C. is at the grocery store, his niece told him to buy whole grain bread. All of the following statements are true about whole grains products EXCEPT:________
A. Any flour made from the endosperm of the wheat kernel is called wheat flour.
B. Whole grain products contain germ and bran as well asendosperm.
C. Refined-grain products contain germ and bran as well as endosperm.
D. Enriched white flour refers to refined flour.

Answers

The statement given is true except "Refined-grain products contains germ and bran as well as endosperm".

It should be noted that the wheat flour is made from the endosperm of the wheat kernel. Also, the germ, bran, and endosperm are contained in the whole grain.

The refined grain doesn't contain germ or bran because they're removed during the processing. It only contains the endosperm.

In conclusion, the correct option is C.

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A physician orders a dosage of 1500mcg. the solution available is 0.5mg per ml. how many ml should the pharmacy technician give the patient?

Answers

Taking into account the rule of three, the volume that the pharmacy technician should give the patient is 3 mL.

What is rule of three

In first place, the rule of three is a way of solving problems of proportionality between three known values and an unknown value, establishing a relationship of proportionality between all of them.

That is, what is intended with it is to find the fourth term of a proportion knowing the other three.  

If the relationship between the magnitudes is direct, that is, when one magnitude increases, so does the other (or when one magnitude decreases, so does the other) , the direct rule of three must be applied.

To solve a direct rule of three, the following formula must be followed, being a, b and c known data and x the variable to be calculated:

a ⇒ b

c ⇒ x

So: \(x=\frac{cxb}{a}\)

Volume that the pharmacy technician should give the patient

A physician orders a dosage of 1500mcg= 1.5 mg (being 1 mcg= 0.001 mg). The solution available is 0.5mg per ml.

So, the volume that the pharmacy technician should give the patient is calculated as:

0.5 mg ⇒ 1 mL

1.5 mg ⇒ volume

So: \(volume=\frac{1.5 mgx1 mL}{0.5 mg}\)

volume= 3 mL

Finally, the volume that the pharmacy technician should give the patient is 3 mL.

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Blood Flow Worksheet, mind helping me out?

Blood Flow Worksheet, mind helping me out?

Answers

Answer:

I'll put (r) if red, (b) if blue after each word

1. heart (b), _________, vena cava (b)

2. right ventricle (b)

3. pulmonary (b), lungs (b)

4. atrium (r), pulmonary veins (r)

5. ventricle (r)

6. ventricle (r), aorta (r), __________

Explanation:

I *think* both of the blanks would be heart, but I'm not positive. And I would guess the first would be blue, and second would be red.

Sorry I didn't get them all.

what enone product would you expect to obtain from intramolecular aldol condensation of 3-methylheptanedial?

Answers

The 3-methylheptanedial intramolecular aldol condensation yields the following enone product: 1-(cyclopent-1-en-1-yl) ethanone is the product.

What are some illustrations of enone?Methyl vinyl ketone, or butenone, has the lowest molecular weight of all enones. The most common methods for making enones are aldol condensation and Knoevenagel condensation. Mesityl oxide, a dimer of acetone, as well as phorone and isophorone are a few economically significant enones that are created through condensations of acetone (trimers).In synthetic organic chemistry, they are helpful as well. Through cross-coupling reactions between vinyl and acyl fragments, often acyl electrophiles and vinyl nucleophiles, enones can be produced, for instance. Between two electrophiles, there exist cross-couplings as well. The Mannich base is alkylated with MeI before being treated with base to produce the enone, which is the most reliable process. An E1cB reaction that results from the production of enolate ions has a better leaving group than the aldols' dehydration.

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The intramolecular aldol condensation of 3-methylheptanedial would produce a product known as 3-methyloctan-2-one.

This product is a cyclic ketone, meaning that it contains a carbon-oxygen double bond within a ring structure. The reaction involves the conversion of a dicarbonyl compound into a cyclic ketone, and is catalyzed by a basic or acidic catalyst.

The reaction begins with a nucleophilic attack of an enolate anion on the carbonyl carbon of the aldehyde, followed by a dehydration step to form the desired ketone product.

The acid or base catalyst helps to protonate the intermediate to make the dehydration step possible. This product can be used in a variety of organic synthesis reactions, such as the synthesis of esters and amines.

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What percent of glycolic acid to keep looking like a salond treatment.

Answers

Glycolic acid

Glycolic acid: chemical formula C₂H₄O₃, is the smallest α-hydroxy acid. This colorless, odorless, and hygroscopic crystalline solid is highly soluble in water.  i hope this helps you! <3  P.S: gl!!

Match the given work profiles to their respective job roles. NEED ASAP​

Match the given work profiles to their respective job roles. NEED ASAP

Answers

Answer:

Matt- Public Health Officer

Rose- Veterinary Researcher

Georgia- Food Safetey Officer

Kane- Veterinary Professor

As the tension of vocal folds in the larynx increase, the voice becomes ________.

Answers

Answer:

higher in pitch

Mycobacterium tuberculosis infects the lungs and can spread to other organs from the lungs. When an infected individual coughs, the bacteria can enter the air and infect nearby individuals. The mode of transmission for the M. tuberculosis pathogen is the ________ route. The portal of entry forM. tuberculosis is _______.

Answers

The nasal route is the transmission method for the pathogen Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The nose serves as M. tuberculosis' point of entrance.

M. tuberculosis spreads by airborne rather than surface-to-surface contact. When a person breathes droplet nuclei carrying M. tuberculosis, the droplet nuclei travel through the mouth, nose, upper respiratory tract, & bronchi to reach the lungs' alveoli. This is known as transmission.

The innate immune cell vacuoles of macrophages provide Mycobacterium TB with a moderately acidic and perhaps nutrient-restricted environment in which to develop. In aquatic and terrestrial habitats, other mycobacterial species are exposed to acidic conditions.

Although TB germs typically assault the lungs, they can also affect the kidney, spine, as well as brain. Not every person who contracts TB germs gets ill.

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Which method of collecting a dietary history is the most time-consuming and requires a high degree of motivation to complete

Answers

Questions

Which of the following methods of collecting a dietary history is the most  

time-consuming and requires a high degree of motivation to complete?  

A) food record  

B) food frequency questionnaire

C) direct observation  

D) 24-hour food recall

Answer:

The correct answer is A) Food Record.

Explanation:

The diet history refers to the historical assessment of an individuals food or dietary intake. It may detail the foods eaten over a 24 hour period, a month or a year.

Dietary History are important as they help to ascertain

whether or not the subject is pre-disposed to malnutrition, determine if there are habits which may lead to obesity, anda dietary combination which will help prevent diseases

Cheers!

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The next day, Kelly ak Tamara about her firt day eating healthier food. Write the converation between Kelly and Tamara. How wa Tamara' firt day on her new diet? Doe Kelly have any more advice for Tamara? Greg would like to provide a more effective controlling idea for his paper. Which sentence should replace the following to effectively state the controlling idea? (Remember you don't want to change the meaning.)a. Science and a lot of other things are needed to design a fun and working roller coaster.b. Designing an exciting roller-coaster ride involves imagination and creativity, but it also requires using science.c. Quite a bit of knowledge is needed to figure out how the best roller coasters work.d. Roller coasters have to be fun, so the scientists who design and build them must know something about amusement parks.e. Hard work, science, and having lots of other skills are needed to design popular roller coasters. which drew from greek philosophy and developed as a process to explain christian doctrine? Hello do anyone know anything about this book called The House on Mango Street???? which of the following is false about recording a macro? a) cell selections can be recorded as absolute references. b) there is a pause button which allows you to remove mistakes as you record. c) the recorder records everything you do. d) it is a good idea to plan your steps and practice them before recording. Primary succession is the beginning step of ecological succession after an extreme disturbance. which event will primary succession most likely occur? How do you simplify the expression (x^2 - 4x + 4) / (x - 2)? you want to use a template for your presentation. when can you select the template? Material culture refers to the objects or belongings of a group of people. 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Calculate the premerger Herfindahl-Hirschman index (HHI) for this market.b. Suppose that any two of these firms merge. What is the postmerger HHI?c. Based only on the information contained in this question and on the U.S. Department of Justice Horizontal Merger Guidelines described in this chapter, do you think the Justice Department would attempt to block a merger between any two of the firms?It likely will not.It likely will.It may but will also consider other factors. A 7 kg wooden block i being puhed at contant velocity to the right with a force of 35N. What i the force of friction on the block? When comparing the genomes of prokaryotes verse eukaryotes, it can be accurately stated thatA. eukaryotic genomes are larger than prokaryotic genomes.B. eukaryotic genomes are smaller than prokaryotic genomes.C. the size of the organism determines the size of the genome.D. larger and more complex organisms have more genes than smaller, less complex organisms. A list of numbers is considered increasing if each value after the first is greater than or equal to the preceding value. The following procedure is intended to return true if numberList is increasing and return false otherwise. Assume that numberList contains at least two elements.Line 1: PROCEDURE isIncreasing(numberList)Line 2: {Line 3: count 2Line 4: REPEAT UNTIL(count > LENGTH(numberList))Line 5: {Line 6: IF(numberList[count] < numberList[count - 1])Line 7: {Line 8: RETURN(true)Line 9: }Line 10: count count + 1Line 11: }Line 12: RETURN(false)Line 13: }Which of the following changes is needed for the program to work as intended?A. In line 3, 2 should be changed to 1.B. In line 6, < should be changed to .C. Line 8 and 12 should be interchanged.D. Lines 10 and 11 should be interchanged. Y = xY2 = 5x-4The extraneous value is Characterization i the method ued by a writer to develop how the character look, act, and think. Many of the character in thi play blame their problem on external force. The true ource of their trouble, however, lie within themelve. It human nature to have peronal trength and weaknee. Sometime thoe weaknee wield too much power, a i the cae with many of the townpeople in Salem. Direction: For each character, elect two weaknee from the following lit. Demontrate how each character diplay the choen weaknee by uing example from the text. Some of the ame weaknee apply to more than one character, while ome may not be ued at all the equilibrium price level and level of real output occur where group of answer choices exports equal imports. real output is at its highest possible level. the price level is at its lowest level. the aggregate demand and supply curves intersect. alcohol disrupts functioning of the _______________, which controls movement and balance. prada produces several lines of shirts. the factory is highly automated and uses an activity-based costing system to allocate overhead costs to its various products. during the upcoming period, the company expects to produce 72,000 units. the costs and cost drivers associated with four activity cost pools are given below: activities: unit level batch level product level facility level cost $30,000 $8,000 $15,000 $36,000 cost driver 12,000 labor hrs 200 set ups % of use 72,000 units production of 20,000 units of its popular red shirt required 3,000 labor hours and 75 setups and consumed one-third of the product sustaining activities. what amount of unit-level costs will be allocated to the product?